A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 min and a frequency of 3 min. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min. maternal heart rate 128/min and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?
Have the client void.
Position the client with one hip elevated.
Ask the client if she needs pain medication.
Notify the provider of the findings.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B. Position the client with one hip elevated.
A. Having the client void is a good practice, but it is not the priority action in this situation. The client's vital signs suggest a potential issue with uteroplacental perfusion, and repositioning the client should be the priority.
B. Positioning the client with one hip elevated is the priority action.
The vital signs, specifically the low blood pressure, may be indicative of aortocaval compression (supine hypotension). Elevating one hip helps alleviate this compression, improving blood flow and potentially addressing the decreased blood pressure.
C. Asking the client if she needs pain medication is important, but repositioning the client takes precedence due to the potential issue with blood pressure and uteroplacental perfusion.
D. Notifying the provider is important, but repositioning the client to improve blood flow should be done first. The provider may be notified afterward based on the client's response and ongoing assessment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The cervix being effaced is not represented by the -1 notation in a vaginal examination. Effacement is usually expressed as a percentage.
B. The -1 notation does not represent cervical dilation. Dilation is measured in centimeters.
C. The presenting part being 1 cm below the ischial spines is not correct. In the station system, if the presenting part is above the ischial spines, it is represented by a negative number. A -1 station indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
D. The presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines is the correct interpretation.
In the station system, if the presenting part is above the ischial spines, it is represented by a negative number. A -1 station indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Cholecystitis is correct. Both estrogen and progesterone have been shown to increase the risk of gallstones.Estrogen has been shown to increase cholesterol production in the liver, with excess amounts precipitating in bile and leading to the formation of gallstones.Progesterone has been shown to decrease gall-bladder motility, which impedes bile flow and leads to gallstone formation.
Choice B Reason:
Hypertension is correct. Women with uncontrolled hypertension or severe hypertension are generally advised against using oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events.
Choice C Reason:
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is incorrect. HPV is not a contraindication to oral contraceptives.Overall, while there may be some association between oral contraceptive use and HPV infection or its progression, the absolute increase in risk is generally considered small, and the benefits of oral contraceptives in preventing unintended pregnancies and managing menstrual issues often outweigh the potential risks.
Choice D Reason:
Migraine headaches is correct. Women with migraines with aura, especially those over 35 years old, are often advised against using estrogen-containing contraceptives due to an increased risk of stroke.
Choice E Reason:
Anxiety disorder is incorrect. Anxiety disorder alone is not a contraindication to oral contraceptives. However, individual health considerations should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
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