A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is assessing four newly admitted clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports irregular uterine contractions
A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a weekly nonstress test (NST)
A client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for an induction of labor
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports decreased fetal movement for 2 days
The Correct Answer is D
A. Irregular uterine contractions at 38 weeks of gestation may not be a concern unless they become regular and more intense.
B. A client scheduled for a nonstress test (NST) at 39 weeks of gestation can typically wait until after attending to more urgent matters.
C. A client scheduled for an induction of labor at 40 weeks of gestation is not necessarily a priority unless there are urgent concerns.
D. Decreased fetal movement, especially for 2 days at 36 weeks of gestation, requires immediate assessment to ensure fetal well-being.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Weight loss while using a diaphragm is not typically an urgent concern and may be related to dieting; the client should be advised to follow up with her primary care provider for further
evaluation.
B. Cramping and bleeding are common side effects following an IUD insertion and typically do not require immediate attention unless severe or accompanied by other concerning symptoms;
the client should be advised to monitor her symptoms and follow up if they worsen.
C. Breakthrough bleeding is a common side effect of starting oral contraceptives and may resolve on its own after a few cycles; the client should be advised to continue taking her pills as prescribed and to follow up if the bleeding persists or worsens.
D. Shoulder pain following a laparoscopic procedure may indicate a potential complication such as referred pain from gas used during the procedure or more serious issues such as internal bleeding or organ injury; the client should be instructed to come to the clinic for further
evaluation and management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Varenicline is a medication used for smoking cessation, not for treating gambling disorder.
B. Disulfiram is a medication used to discourage alcohol consumption by inducing unpleasant side effects if alcohol is consumed; it is not used for treating gambling disorder.
C. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant that has been shown to be effective in treating gambling disorder by reducing gambling urges and behaviors.
D. Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to treat conditions such as hypertension and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); it is not typically used for treating gambling disorder.
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