A nurse observes assistive personnel (AP) entering the room of a client who is under contact precautions without wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Give the AP the appropriate PPE.

Notify the charge nurse about the AP's lack of PPE.

Volunteer to provide an in-service about infection control.

Speak with the AP before leaving the shift about the appropriate protocol.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : D

The correct answer is Choice D. Speak with the AP before leaving the shift about the appropriate protocol.

Choice A rationale: Giving the AP the appropriate PPE is not the best action for the nurse to take. While this might prevent the AP from spreading the infection to other clients or themselves, it does not address the root cause of the problem, which is the AP’s lack of knowledge or compliance with the infection control policies. The nurse should educate the AP about the importance of wearing PPE and the consequences of not doing so. Giving the AP the appropriate PPE might also imply that the nurse condones the AP’s behavior, which could undermine the nurse’s authority and credibility.

Choice B rationale: Notifying the charge nurse about the AP’s lack of PPE is not the best action for the nurse to take. While this might alert the charge nurse to the issue and prompt corrective action, it does not demonstrate the nurse’s leadership and communication skills. The nurse should first attempt to resolve the issue directly with the AP, as this shows respect and professionalism. Notifying the charge nurse might also create a sense of distrust and resentment between the nurse and the AP, which could affect their working relationship and teamwork.

Choice C rationale: Volunteering to provide an in-service about infection control is not the best action for the nurse to take. While this might be a helpful and proactive way to educate the staff about the infection control policies and procedures, it does not address the immediate issue of the AP’s lack of PPE. The nurse should first speak with the AP and ensure that they understand and follow the contact precautions for the client. Volunteering to provide an in-service might also be seen as overstepping the nurse’s role and scope of practice, as this is usually the responsibility of the infection control nurse or the staff development coordinator.

Choice D rationale: Speaking with the AP before leaving the shift about the appropriate protocol is the best action for the nurse to take. This shows that the nurse is concerned about the AP’s safety and the client’s well-being, as well as the infection control standards. The nurse should explain to the AP why they need to wear PPE when entering the room of a client who is under contact precautions, and what are the risks of not doing so. The nurse should also provide the AP with feedback and reinforcement, and document the incident and the intervention. Speaking with the AP before leaving the shift also ensures that the issue is addressed in a timely and respectful manner, and that the nurse and the AP have a clear and consistent understanding of the expectations and the outcomes.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

This option is incorrect. Tachypnea refers to abnormally fast breathing, typically defined as a respiratory rate higher than 20 breaths per minute in adults. It is the opposite of the condition described in the question, where the respiratory rate has fallen below 10 respirations per minute.

Choice B rationale:

This option is incorrect. Apnea refers to the absence of breathing, often resulting from a temporary cessation of airflow to the lungs. It is characterized by the complete absence of respiratory movements and sounds, which is different from the situation described in the question where the client is breathing at a very slow rate.

Choice C rationale:

Bradypnea, or abnormally slow breathing, is the correct answer in this case. It is defined as a respiratory rate lower than the normal range, which is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute in adults. Bradypnea can be caused by various factors, including drug overdose, neurological disorders, or metabolic imbalances. In this scenario, the client's slow respiratory rate (below 10 respirations per minute) indicates bradypnea.

Choice D rationale:

This option is incorrect. Eupnea refers to normal breathing, where the rate and depth of respirations are within the normal range. It does not describe the condition of the sedated client in the question, who is experiencing abnormally slow breathing (bradypnea)

A. Counting a regular pulse for 30 seconds and doubling the number to obtain the rate. B. Palpates the femoral artery in the groin of the client. C. Palpates both carotid pulses at the same time. D. Palpates the radial artery on the thumb side of the wrist.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The client's respirations are faster and deeper than normal due to expelling too much carbon dioxide. This condition is known as hyperventilation. Hyperventilation can occur due to various reasons such as anxiety, pain, fever, or metabolic acidosis. When the body expels excessive carbon dioxide, it leads to respiratory alkalosis, resulting in faster and deeper breathing to compensate for the decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

Choice B rationale:

This option is incorrect. Hypoxemia, or low blood oxygen levels, typically leads to rapid, shallow breathing (tachypnea) rather than deep and fast respirations.

Choice C rationale:

This option is incorrect. Inflammation of the phrenic nerve does not directly affect the depth and rate of respirations. Phrenic nerve inflammation is more likely to cause pain during breathing or hiccups.

Choice D rationale:

This option is incorrect. Using intercostal muscles to breathe is a normal physiological process, especially during deep or labored breathing. However, it does not explain the specific situation described in the question, where the respirations are faster and deeper than normal.

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