A nurse observes assistive personnel (AP) entering the room of a client who is under contact precautions without wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Give the AP the appropriate PPE.
Notify the charge nurse about the AP's lack of PPE.
Volunteer to provide an in-service about infection control.
Speak with the AP before leaving the shift about the appropriate protocol.
Correct Answer : D
The correct answer is Choice D. Speak with the AP before leaving the shift about the appropriate protocol.
Choice A rationale: Giving the AP the appropriate PPE is not the best action for the nurse to take. While this might prevent the AP from spreading the infection to other clients or themselves, it does not address the root cause of the problem, which is the AP’s lack of knowledge or compliance with the infection control policies. The nurse should educate the AP about the importance of wearing PPE and the consequences of not doing so. Giving the AP the appropriate PPE might also imply that the nurse condones the AP’s behavior, which could undermine the nurse’s authority and credibility.
Choice B rationale: Notifying the charge nurse about the AP’s lack of PPE is not the best action for the nurse to take. While this might alert the charge nurse to the issue and prompt corrective action, it does not demonstrate the nurse’s leadership and communication skills. The nurse should first attempt to resolve the issue directly with the AP, as this shows respect and professionalism. Notifying the charge nurse might also create a sense of distrust and resentment between the nurse and the AP, which could affect their working relationship and teamwork.
Choice C rationale: Volunteering to provide an in-service about infection control is not the best action for the nurse to take. While this might be a helpful and proactive way to educate the staff about the infection control policies and procedures, it does not address the immediate issue of the AP’s lack of PPE. The nurse should first speak with the AP and ensure that they understand and follow the contact precautions for the client. Volunteering to provide an in-service might also be seen as overstepping the nurse’s role and scope of practice, as this is usually the responsibility of the infection control nurse or the staff development coordinator.
Choice D rationale: Speaking with the AP before leaving the shift about the appropriate protocol is the best action for the nurse to take. This shows that the nurse is concerned about the AP’s safety and the client’s well-being, as well as the infection control standards. The nurse should explain to the AP why they need to wear PPE when entering the room of a client who is under contact precautions, and what are the risks of not doing so. The nurse should also provide the AP with feedback and reinforcement, and document the incident and the intervention. Speaking with the AP before leaving the shift also ensures that the issue is addressed in a timely and respectful manner, and that the nurse and the AP have a clear and consistent understanding of the expectations and the outcomes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A pulse rating of 2+ is not considered an expected finding. It indicates a weaker pulse, which requires further assessment.
Choice B rationale:
A pulse rated as 2+ means the pulse is full volume and bounding. In clinical practice, a 2+ pulse is considered normal and signifies a pulse that is easily palpable and has a normal strength. This is an essential finding for the nurse to understand because it reflects the circulatory status of the client. A 2+ pulse suggests adequate perfusion and a healthy heart pumping blood effectively.
Choice C rationale:
A pulse rating of increased and strong corresponds to a higher numeric value on the scale, indicating a stronger pulse. A 2+ pulse is not categorized as increased but is rather a moderate strength pulse.
Choice D rationale:
A pulse rating of 2+ does not suggest an absent pulse. An absent pulse would mean that no pulse can be felt, which is a critical situation requiring immediate medical attention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This option is incorrect. Tachypnea refers to abnormally fast breathing, typically defined as a respiratory rate higher than 20 breaths per minute in adults. It is the opposite of the condition described in the question, where the respiratory rate has fallen below 10 respirations per minute.
Choice B rationale:
This option is incorrect. Apnea refers to the absence of breathing, often resulting from a temporary cessation of airflow to the lungs. It is characterized by the complete absence of respiratory movements and sounds, which is different from the situation described in the question where the client is breathing at a very slow rate.
Choice C rationale:
Bradypnea, or abnormally slow breathing, is the correct answer in this case. It is defined as a respiratory rate lower than the normal range, which is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute in adults. Bradypnea can be caused by various factors, including drug overdose, neurological disorders, or metabolic imbalances. In this scenario, the client's slow respiratory rate (below 10 respirations per minute) indicates bradypnea.
Choice D rationale:
This option is incorrect. Eupnea refers to normal breathing, where the rate and depth of respirations are within the normal range. It does not describe the condition of the sedated client in the question, who is experiencing abnormally slow breathing (bradypnea)
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