A nurse needs to administer a cephalosporin to a patient.
The patient informs the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin.
Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?

Inform the primary health care provider.

Obtain the patient's occupational history.

Administer an antipyretic drug.

Obtain specimens for kidney function tests.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

The most appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to inform the primary healthcare provider. When a patient with a known penicillin allergy requires a cephalosporin, it's essential to inform the primary healthcare provider because cephalosporins, while structurally related to penicillins, may or may not cross-react with penicillin allergies. The provider needs to assess the patient's allergy history and determine if it's safe to administer the cephalosporin.

Choice B rationale:

Obtaining the patient's occupational history is not the most appropriate action in this scenario. Allergic reactions to medications are not related to the patient's occupation, and it doesn't address the immediate concern of potential cross-reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporin allergies.

Choice C rationale:

Administering an antipyretic drug is not the most appropriate action in this case. The patient's known penicillin allergy and the need for a cephalosporin are the primary concerns. Treating a potential allergic reaction with an antipyretic should only be considered after consultation with the primary healthcare provider.

Choice D rationale:

Obtaining specimens for kidney function tests is not the most appropriate action in this situation. While assessing kidney function is important in some cases, it doesn't address the immediate issue of the patient's penicillin allergy and the need for a cephalosporin. The primary focus should be on ensuring the safety of the antibiotic choice.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Emetics are medications that induce vomiting and are used in cases of drug overdose, ingestion of toxic substances, or other situations where rapid removal of the ingested substance is necessary. However, it is crucial that the client's mental status is intact and they can cooperate and understand the need to induce vomiting. If a client is unconscious or unable to protect their airway, inducing vomiting can lead to aspiration and further complications.

Choice B rationale:

Clients with existing severe hypertension should not be administered emetics, as the act of inducing vomiting can lead to a sudden increase in blood pressure, potentially causing adverse cardiovascular events.

Choice C rationale:

Clients with a medical history of convulsions (seizures) should not be given emetics. Inducing vomiting may lead to a convulsive episode, which can be harmful and increase the risk of aspiration.

Choice D rationale:

Clients with an existing condition of hemorrhagic diathesis (a tendency to bleed excessively) should not be administered emetics. Inducing vomiting can cause mucosal damage and bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, further exacerbating the client's condition.

A. Bloody diarrhea. B. Abdominal cramping. C. Creamy white patches on the throat. D. Heartburn.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Bloody diarrhea is not typically associated with a fungal superinfection. This symptom is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues and may be related to other causes such as infection or inflammatory bowel disease.

Choice B rationale:

Abdominal cramping is also not a typical sign of a fungal superinfection. It is more likely to be associated with gastrointestinal problems, food intolerances, or other conditions.

Choice D rationale:

Heartburn is not a common sign of a fungal superinfection. It is usually associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or other gastrointestinal issues. Creamy white patches on the throat (Choice C) are indicative of oral thrush, a fungal superinfection. This condition is caused by the overgrowth of Candida albicans and is commonly seen in individuals with compromised immune systems, such as those on immunosuppressive therapy or with HIV. It is important to recognize these white patches as they may require treatment with antifungal medications to prevent further complications.

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A nurse needs to administer a cephalosporin to a patient.The patient informs the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin.Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse needs to administer a cephalosporin to a patient.
The patient informs the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin.
Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?