A nurse manager is reviewing medical records to recommend clients for discharge following a local mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for discharge?
A client who has heart failure and received furosemide IV 8 hr ago
A client who was admitted 24 hr ago with chest pain
A client who had a seizure 48 hr ago and is on seizure precautions
A client who is scheduled to have a colonoscopy in 12 hr
The Correct Answer is D
A. A client who has heart failure and received furosemide IV 8 hr ago:
Clients with heart failure require ongoing monitoring for fluid balance, electrolyte levels, and signs of worsening symptoms. IV furosemide indicates active treatment, so this client is not stable for discharge.
B. A client who was admitted 24 hr ago with chest pain:
A client with recent chest pain requires further evaluation for acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Even if pain has resolved, monitoring for cardiac events is essential. This client is not stable for discharge.
C. A client who had a seizure 48 hr ago and is on seizure precautions:
Recent seizures require continued monitoring to assess for recurrence, medication adjustments, and safety precautions. This client is not stable for discharge.
D. A client who is scheduled to have a colonoscopy in 12 hr:
A colonoscopy is an elective procedure and does not require hospitalization. This client is stable and can be discharged to free up resources for mass casualty victims.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis. This is correct because tuberculosis is a highly contagious airborne disease that must be reported to the health department for tracking, treatment, and public health intervention.
B. Fibromyalgia syndrome. This is incorrect because fibromyalgia is a chronic pain condition that is not infectious and does not require mandatory reporting.
C. Herpes simplex virus. This is incorrect because herpes simplex, though contagious, is not a reportable disease.
D. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. This is incorrect because MRSA infections are not universally required to be reported, though some states may have specific regulations for outbreaks in healthcare settings.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Rotavirus vaccine is for infants, not older adults. It is given to prevent severe diarrhea caused by rotavirus.
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is recommended for adolescents and young adults, typically before age 26, to prevent cervical and other cancers.
C. Herpes zoster (shingles) vaccine is recommended for older adults, usually starting at age 50 or 60, to reduce the risk of shingles and its complications.
D. DTaP is given to infants and young children. Instead, older adults should receive a Td or Tdap booster every 10 years.
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