A nurse is triaging clients following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who has a small circular partial-thickness burn of the left calf.
A client who has severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea.
A client who has a splinted open fracture of the left medial malleolus.
A client who has a massive head injury and is experiencing seizures.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: A Client Who Has a Small Circular Partial-Thickness Burn of the Left Calf
A small circular partial-thickness burn of the left calf is considered a minor injury in the context of a mass casualty event. This type of injury does not pose an immediate threat to life and can be managed after more critical cases are addressed. In mass casualty triage, patients with minor injuries are often categorized as “green” or “minimal” and are treated last.
Choice B reason: A Client Who Has Severe Respiratory Stridor and a Deviated Trachea
A client with severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea should be assessed first. These symptoms indicate a potential airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. In mass casualty triage, patients with compromised airways are given the highest priority and are categorized as “red” or “immediate” because their condition is critical and requires urgent medical attention.
Choice C reason: A Client Who Has a Splinted Open Fracture of the Left Medial Malleolus
A splinted open fracture of the left medial malleolus is a serious injury but not immediately life-threatening if properly splinted. This client would be categorized as “yellow” or “delayed” in mass casualty triage, meaning they require medical attention but can wait until more critical patients are stabilized.
Choice D reason: A Client Who Has a Massive Head Injury and Is Experiencing Seizures
A client with a massive head injury and experiencing seizures is in a critical condition. However, in the context of mass casualty triage, the immediate priority is to secure the airway, breathing, and circulation. While this client is in dire need of medical attention, the presence of severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea in another client takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypophosphatemia
Hypophosphatemia, or low phosphate levels, is not typically associated with prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Prerenal AKI is primarily related to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, which does not directly affect phosphate levels. Hypophosphatemia is more commonly seen in conditions such as refeeding syndrome, chronic alcoholism, and certain endocrine disorders.
Choice B reason: Hyperkalemia
Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, is a common electrolyte imbalance in prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). When kidney function is impaired, the kidneys are less able to excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This can result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and requires prompt management. Hyperkalemia is often seen in various types of AKI, including prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal causes.
Choice C reason: Hypercalcemia
Hypercalcemia, or high calcium levels, is not typically associated with prerenal AKI. In fact, AKI can sometimes lead to hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) due to impaired kidney function affecting calcium and phosphate metabolism. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with conditions such as hyperparathyroidism, malignancies, and certain medications.
Choice D reason: Hypernatremia
Hypernatremia, or high sodium levels, is also not a typical finding in prerenal AKI. Prerenal AKI is usually characterized by volume depletion, which can lead to hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to the body’s attempt to retain water and maintain blood pressure. Hypernatremia is more commonly seen in conditions involving excessive water loss or inadequate water intake.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Family history of cardiac disease is a non-modifiable risk factor. This means it cannot be changed or controlled through lifestyle or behavioral modifications. A family history of heart disease increases an individual’s risk, but it is not something that can be altered.
Choice B reason:
Increasing age is another non-modifiable risk factor. As people age, their risk for cardiovascular disease naturally increases. This is due to the cumulative effects of aging on the cardiovascular system, which cannot be changed.
Choice C reason:
The diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is a complex risk factor. While the presence of diabetes itself is not modifiable, the management of diabetes through lifestyle changes, medication, and diet can significantly reduce cardiovascular risk. However, the condition itself remains a non-modifiable risk factor.
Choice D reason:
Cigarette smoking is a modifiable risk factor. This means that individuals can reduce their risk of cardiovascular disease by quitting smoking. Smoking cessation has been shown to significantly lower the risk of heart disease and improve overall cardiovascular health.
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