A nurse is triaging clients following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who has a small circular partial-thickness burn of the left calf.
A client who has severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea.
A client who has a splinted open fracture of the left medial malleolus.
A client who has a massive head injury and is experiencing seizures.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: A Client Who Has a Small Circular Partial-Thickness Burn of the Left Calf
A small circular partial-thickness burn of the left calf is considered a minor injury in the context of a mass casualty event. This type of injury does not pose an immediate threat to life and can be managed after more critical cases are addressed. In mass casualty triage, patients with minor injuries are often categorized as “green” or “minimal” and are treated last.
Choice B reason: A Client Who Has Severe Respiratory Stridor and a Deviated Trachea
A client with severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea should be assessed first. These symptoms indicate a potential airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. In mass casualty triage, patients with compromised airways are given the highest priority and are categorized as “red” or “immediate” because their condition is critical and requires urgent medical attention.
Choice C reason: A Client Who Has a Splinted Open Fracture of the Left Medial Malleolus
A splinted open fracture of the left medial malleolus is a serious injury but not immediately life-threatening if properly splinted. This client would be categorized as “yellow” or “delayed” in mass casualty triage, meaning they require medical attention but can wait until more critical patients are stabilized.
Choice D reason: A Client Who Has a Massive Head Injury and Is Experiencing Seizures
A client with a massive head injury and experiencing seizures is in a critical condition. However, in the context of mass casualty triage, the immediate priority is to secure the airway, breathing, and circulation. While this client is in dire need of medical attention, the presence of severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea in another client takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: WBC Count
Reason: The white blood cell (WBC) count is not directly related to fall risk. WBC count is an indicator of the immune system’s response to infection or inflammation. In this case, the patient’s WBC count is within the normal range (5,000 to 10,000/mm³) on both days. Therefore, it does not contribute to an increased risk of falls.
Choice B: Parkinson’s disease
Reason: Parkinson’s disease significantly increases the risk of falls due to several factors. Patients with Parkinson’s often experience postural instability, which is the inability to maintain balance when standing or walking. This condition is a cardinal feature of Parkinson’s disease and can lead to frequent falls. Additionally, Parkinson’s patients may experience freezing of gait, where they suddenly cannot move their feet forward despite the intention to walk. This can cause them to fall. Other gait abnormalities, such as festinating gait (short, rapid steps) and dyskinesias (involuntary movements), also contribute to the increased fall risk.
Choice C: Potassium level on day 2
Reason: The patient’s potassium level on day 2 is 3.0 mEq/L, which is below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue. These symptoms can impair the patient’s ability to maintain balance and increase the risk of falls. Hypokalemia can also cause abnormal heart rhythms, which can further contribute to the risk of falls.
Choice D: Furosemide
Reason: Furosemide is a diuretic medication used to treat conditions such as heart failure by reducing fluid buildup in the body. However, it can also cause orthostatic hypotension, a condition where blood pressure drops significantly when standing up. This can lead to dizziness, lightheadedness, and an increased risk of falls. Additionally, furosemide can cause electrolyte imbalances, such as low potassium levels, which can further contribute to fall risk.
Choice E: Low blood pressure
Reason: The patient’s blood pressure readings indicate orthostatic hypotension, with a significant drop from 128/56 mm Hg while sitting to 92/40 mm Hg while standing. Orthostatic hypotension is a common condition in patients with Parkinson’s disease and heart failure. It can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and fainting when changing positions, increasing the risk of falls. The patient’s low blood pressure when standing is a clear indicator of increased fall risk.
Correct Answer is A,B,C,D,E
Explanation
1. a) Inspect the abdomen for skin integrity: The first step in an abdominal assessment is inspection. The nurse should visually examine the abdomen for any abnormalities such as skin changes, scars, distention, or masses.
2. b) Ask the client about having a history of abdominal pain: Gathering a history of abdominal pain is crucial as it provides context for the physical findings. This step helps identify any underlying conditions that may influence the assessment.
3. c) Auscultate the abdomen for bowel sounds: Auscultation should be performed before palpation and percussion to avoid altering the bowel sounds. The nurse listens for the presence, frequency, and character of bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
4. d) Percuss the abdomen in each of the four quadrants: Percussion helps to assess the presence of fluid, air, or masses in the abdomen. The nurse taps on the abdomen to listen for sounds that indicate the underlying structures.
5. e) Palpate the abdomen gently for tenderness: Palpation is the final step and involves gently pressing on the abdomen to check for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. This step should be done last to avoid causing discomfort or altering the findings of the other steps.
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