A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the administration of nitroglycerin. Which of the following routes of administration provides the most rapid onset for the client?
Topical ointment
Sustained-release
Sublingual
Transdermal patch
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A: Topical ointment Topical ointment forms of nitroglycerin are used for their long-acting effects. The medication is absorbed slowly through the skin, providing a steady level of drug in the bloodstream. This form is not designed for rapid relief of acute angina attacks but rather for prevention.
Choice B: Sustained-release Sustained-release forms of nitroglycerin are designed to release the medication slowly over an extended period. This route is also not suitable for treating acute symptoms because it does not provide immediate relief but is used for long-term management of angina pectoris. Nitroglycerin is a medication used primarily to treat angina pectoris (chest pain) and heart failure. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles and dilating the blood vessels, which increases blood flow to the heart and decreases its workload. The route of administration can significantly affect the onset and duration of the medication’s action.
Choice C: Sublingual The sublingual route, where the medication is placed under the tongue, allows for rapid absorption into the bloodstream through the rich supply of blood vessels found in the area. This form of nitroglycerin acts quickly, usually within 1 to 3 minutes, and is the preferred choice for immediate relief of angina pain. When rapid onset is required for relief from acute angina symptoms, the sublingual route is the most appropriate choice for administering nitroglycerin. It provides quick absorption and fast action, making it an essential treatment option for patients experiencing chest pain due to angina.
Choice D: Transdermal patch Transdermal patches release nitroglycerin slowly through the skin and into the bloodstream. Like topical ointments and sustained-release forms, they are used for long-term prophylaxis of angina and not for rapid relief.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Instruct the client to lean forward This action is not related to the assessment of asterixis. Leaning forward can be part of the physical examination for other conditions, such as assessing for spinal issues or abdominal pain, but it does not provoke the characteristic flapping motion of the hands seen in asterixis.
Choice B: Ask the client to extend the arms This is the correct method to assess for asterixis. The patient is asked to extend their arms and dorsiflex their wrists. The nurse then observes for any involuntary flapping movements of the hands, which would indicate the presence of asterixis. This sign is indicative of a disturbance in the central nervous system’s regulation of muscle tone, often due to metabolic liver dysfunction. To assess for asterixis, the nurse should ask the client to extend their arms, which is the standard method for eliciting this sign. The presence of asterixis can help in the diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy and other metabolic conditions affecting the brain’s control of muscle tone.
Choice C: Dorsiflex the client’s foot Dorsiflexion of the foot is not a method used to assess for asterixis. While changes in muscle tone can be assessed in the lower limbs, asterixis is specifically a hand tremor and is best observed in the upper extremities.
Choice D: Measure the abdominal girth Measuring abdominal girth is relevant in the assessment of ascites, which can occur in cirrhosis, but it is not a method for assessing asterixis. Ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, leading to increased abdominal size, which is a common complication of cirrhosis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypophosphatemia refers to an abnormally low level of phosphate in the blood. The normal range for serum phosphate in adults is typically around 2.5 to 4.5 mg/dL. In the context of acute kidney injury (AKI), the kidneys’ ability to excrete phosphate is impaired, which can actually lead to hyperphosphatemia, not hypophosphatemia. Therefore, while phosphate levels are important to monitor in AKI, hypophosphatemia is not typically expected.
Choice B reason: Hypercalcemia is characterized by an elevated level of calcium in the blood, with the normal range being approximately 8.5 to 10.2 mg/dL. AKI can sometimes be associated with hypercalcemia, particularly if there is extensive tissue breakdown or rhabdomyolysis. However, it is not as commonly expected as hyperkalemia. Hypercalcemia in AKI is more often secondary to other underlying conditions rather than a direct result of the kidney injury itself.
Choice C reason: Hyperkalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in AKI and refers to a high level of potassium in the blood. The normal range for serum potassium is about 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. In AKI, the kidneys’ ability to excrete potassium is compromised, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the blood. This can be life-threatening, causing cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia is a key concern in AKI management and is often expected in this condition. While all the listed electrolyte imbalances can occur in various clinical scenarios, hyperkalemia is the most commonly expected electrolyte disturbance in a patient with acute kidney injury. It is crucial for healthcare providers to monitor and manage electrolyte levels carefully in AKI to prevent complications.
Choice D reason: Hypernatremia means an elevated sodium level in the blood, with the normal range being 135 to 145 mEq/L. While sodium balance can be affected in AKI, hypernatremia is not typically expected. It is more commonly associated with conditions that cause a loss of water or an intake of sodium, such as diabetes insipidus or excessive salt ingestion. In AKI, the focus is often on managing fluid overload rather than sodium excess.
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