A nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) to screen for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You will need to fast for 12 hours before the test."
"You will need to lie flat for 4 hours following the test."
"You will need to remove all jewelry before the test."
"You will need to empty your bladder before the test."
The Correct Answer is C
A. Fasting is not necessary for a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan, as it does not involve ingesting anything.
B. The client does not need to lie flat for an extended period following a DXA scan. They can resume normal activities immediately after the test.
C. The nurse should instruct the client to remove all jewelry or metal objects that can interfere with the test. A DXA scan is the mostly commonly used screening and diagnostic tool for measuring bone mineral density.
D. . It is not necessary to empty the bladder before the test.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Palpating the femoral pulse is an essential part of assessing the neurovascular status of a client with a femur fracture. The presence and strength of the femoral pulse can indicate adequate blood flow to the lower extremity.
B. While measuring the circumference of the thigh can provide some information about swelling or changes in the size of the limb, it does not directly assess neurovascular status.
C. Monitoring the client's calf for edema is important for assessing for signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or venous insufficiency, but it is not the primary technique for assessing neurovascular status.
D. Instructing the client to wiggle his toes is a way to assess motor function and nerve function, which is part of the neurovascular assessment. However, it is not the initial step in assessing neurovascular status in a client with an unrepaired femur fracture. The femoral pulse should be assessed first to ensure adequate blood flow.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Delaying the surgery until a member of the client's family is reached may not be in the best interest of the client if urgent surgical intervention is indicated.
B. While naloxone can reverse the effects of opioids like morphine, it is not the primary action the neurosurgeon would take in this situation. The priority is addressing the urgent surgical need.
C. Invoking implied consent is the most appropriate action in this situation. Implied consent is assumed in emergency situations where the client is unable to provide consent, and delay would significantly jeopardize the client's health.
D. Asking the client to sign the surgical consent form would not be feasible in this situation since the client is likely not in a condition to provide informed consent due to the administration of intravenous morphine and the urgency of the surgical intervention.
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