A nurse is teaching a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation and is to undergo an amniocentesis. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to identify which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
"Gender of the fetus"
"Anomalies in fetal chromosomes"
"Rh incompatibility"
"Cephalopelvic disproportion"
"Neural tube defects"
Correct Answer : B,E
Choice A: Amniocentesis is not primarily performed to determine the gender of the fetus. The main indication for this procedure is to detect genetic abnormalities or chromosomal disorders.
Choice B: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21), trisomy 18, and trisomy 13, among others.
Choice C: Rh incompatibility is assessed through blood tests, not amniocentesis. It involves determining the Rh factor of the mother's blood and monitoring for potential Rh sensitization.
Choice D: Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a situation where the baby's head is too large or the mother's pelvis is too small to allow for a vaginal delivery. It is not related to amniocentesis.
Choice E: While detecting neural tube defects can be done through amniocentesis, it is not the primary indication for the procedure. Neural tube defects can also be screened for through blood tests and ultrasound examinations. Amniocentesis is more commonly used for chromosomal analysis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: The client should not lie on her back during the NST because the supine position can compress the vena cava and reduce blood flow to the placenta and the baby. The NST is typically done with the client in a semireclined or left lateral position to ensure optimal blood flow to the baby.
Choice B: Monitoring the baby's heart rate is a correct statement and a standard part of the NST procedure.
Choice C: The duration mentioned (20 to 30 minutes) is accurate for the average NST timeframe.
Choice D: Scheduling the NST when the baby is usually active is also a correct statement, as fetal movement during the test is an important aspect of evaluating fetal wellbeing.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a cough and fever may have an infection, which is concerning, but it is not immediately life-threatening. The nurse should assess this client soon, but it is not the highest priority.
B.A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting could be experiencing an early pregnancy complication, such as a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. This situation requires attention, but it is not as urgent as painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.
C.A client at 14 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting is likely experiencing common pregnancy symptoms. While these symptoms can be uncomfortable and require management, they are not typically urgent.
D.A client at 28 weeks of gestation with painless vaginal bleeding could be experiencing placenta previa or another serious condition that poses an immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus. This situation requires urgent assessment and intervention.
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