A nurse is teaching a client who has tuberculosis and is to start medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
"Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy."
"Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet."
"Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing."
"Take isoniazid with an antacid."
The Correct Answer is B
Answer: B
Rationale:
A) "Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy":
While sputum cultures may become negative after a period of effective therapy, it is not always guaranteed to happen within exactly 6 months. Tuberculosis (TB) treatment usually involves several months of medication, and sputum cultures are monitored periodically to assess treatment efficacy, not solely at the 6-month mark.
B) "Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet":
Drinking plenty of water with pyrazinamide is important to prevent dehydration and to help minimize potential side effects, such as hyperuricemia or gout. Adequate hydration can also aid in the effective elimination of the medication from the body, thus reducing the risk of adverse effects.
C) "Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing":
Sputum specimens are typically provided less frequently than every 2 weeks, usually monthly, to monitor the progress of TB treatment. Testing frequency may vary depending on the client's condition and the healthcare provider's recommendations.
D) "Take isoniazid with an antacid":
Isoniazid should not be taken with antacids, as antacids can interfere with the absorption of isoniazid. It is usually advised to take isoniazid on an empty stomach, and clients should be instructed to wait at least 1 hour after taking isoniazid before consuming antacids.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching, as weight loss is one of the most effective ways to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes in clients who are obese and have obstructive sleep apnea. Obstructive sleep apnea is a condition in which the upper airway collapses or becomes blocked during sleep, causing pauses in breathing and hypoxia. Obesity is a major risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea, as excess fat tissue around the neck and throat can narrow the airway and increase its collapsibility. Losing weight can reduce the pressure on the airway and improve its patency.
b) "I sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night." This statement indicates a lack of understanding of the teaching, as sleeping pills are not recommended for clients who have obstructive sleep apnea. Sleeping pills can worsen the condition by relaxing the muscles of the throat and tongue, which can further obstruct the airway and decrease the arousal response to hypoxia. The nurse should advise the client to avoid sleeping pills and other sedatives or alcohol before bedtime.
c) "It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back." This statement indicates a lack of understanding of the teaching, as sleeping on the back is not helpful for clients who have obstructive sleep apnea. Sleeping on the back can increase the risk of airway obstruction by allowing gravity to pull the tongue and soft palate backward, which can block the airway and cause snoring and apnea. The nurse should suggest that the client try sleeping on the side or elevate the head of the bed to prevent this.
d) "I should get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night." This statement indicates a lack of understanding of the teaching, as a humidifier is not likely to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes in clients who have obstructive sleep apnea. A humidifier can moisten the air and ease breathing for clients who have dry or irritated nasal passages, but it does not address the underlying cause of airway obstruction or hypoxia. The nurse should inform the client that a humidifier may not be effective for obstructive sleep apnea and may increase the risk of infection or mold growth if not cleaned properly.

Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administration of a prescribed bronchodilator is typically recommended approximately 30 minutes prior to meals rather than 1 hour. This pharmacological timing helps reduce dyspnea and facilitates easier deglutition and mastication by improving airflow. Using it too early may result in the peak therapeutic effect tapering off before the client finishes the meal.
B. Consuming 3 large meals each day is contraindicated for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease because a distended stomach can exert upward pressure on the diaphragm. This abdominal crowding significantly increases the work of breathing and leads to early satiety or respiratory distress. Clients are instead encouraged to eat 5 to 6 small, frequent, nutrient-dense meals.
C. The nurse should instruct the client to limit water or fluid intake during the actual mealtime to prevent premature gastric distention. Early fullness from fluids reduces the client’s ability to consume essential solid nutrients and calories required to support the increased metabolic demands of labored breathing. Fluids should be consumed between meals to maintain adequate hydration and thin secretions.
D. Reducing protein intake is inappropriate because these clients require high-protein and high-calorie diets to prevent muscle wasting and support the respiratory muscles. The metabolic cost of breathing in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is significantly elevated, often leading to a state of malnutrition or cachexia. Protein is vital for tissue repair and maintaining the functional integrity of the diaphragm.
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