A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ferrous gluconate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I should take this medication with 8 ounces of milk."
"I should stay upright for at least 15 minutes after taking this medication."
"I should take an antacid with this medication to prevent stomach upset."
"I should notify my provider if my stools turn black."
The Correct Answer is B
A. Taking ferrous gluconate with milk is not advised because calcium in milk can interfere with the absorption of iron. The client should avoid taking iron supplements with calcium-containing products.
B. Staying upright for at least 15 minutes after taking ferrous gluconate can help prevent esophageal irritation or discomfort. This instruction is crucial for iron supplements, as lying down immediately after ingestion can cause reflux or esophagitis.
C. Taking an antacid with ferrous gluconate can reduce its absorption. The client should be advised to avoid taking antacids, calcium supplements, or certain medications close to the time of iron intake.
D. Black stools are a common and harmless side effect of iron supplementation. The client should be informed that this is expected and not a reason to notify the provider unless there are additional concerning symptoms, such as abdominal pain or constipation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that increases the level of serotonin in the brain. Serotonin syndrome is a rare but serious adverse effect of SSRIs that can cause confusion, agitation, tremors, seizures, and coma. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately, as it can be life-threatening.
Choice B rationale: Insomnia can occur as an adverse effect of citalopram but might not be as immediately concerning as confusion.
Choice C rationale: Bruxism (teeth grinding) can be a side effect of citalopram but might not pose an immediate risk compared to confusion.
Choice D rationale: Weight loss, while a potential side effect, might not be as urgent or immediately concerning as confusion.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This prescription indicates a single dose, which seems appropriate for its use.
Choice B rationale: Penicillin G is usually administered in divided doses 4 to 6 hours apart intramuscularly.
Choice C rationale: The nurse should clarify the prescription for warfarin with the provider before administering it. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that is usually given orally, not subcutaneously. The dose of warfarin is also measured in milligrams, not units. The nurse should verify the route, dosage, and frequency of warfarin with the provider to prevent adverse effects such as bleeding or clotting.
Choice D rationale: The frequency and dosage of Tetracycline are standard and within the typical range for treatment.
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