A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking amitriptyline. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Hct 44%
WBC count 5,000/mm3
Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
Total bilirubin 1.5 mg/dL
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Hct 44% is incorrect. A hematocrit (Hct) level of 44% falls within the normal range for most adults. It represents the proportion of red blood cells in the blood and is not typically concerning unless it significantly deviates from the normal range, indicating anemia or polycythemia.
Choice B Reason:
WBC count 5,000/mm3 is incorrect. A white blood cell (WBC) count of 5,000/mm3 falls within the normal range for adults, reflecting a normal immune response. There's usually no cause for immediate concern unless there are specific clinical symptoms or significant deviations from the normal range.
Choice C Reason:
Potassium 4.2 mEq/L is incorrect. A potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range for serum potassium levels. It's crucial to monitor potassium levels, especially with medications that can affect electrolyte balance, but this value falls within the typical range and may not prompt immediate action unless there are notable fluctuations or clinical symptoms related to potassium imbalance.
While the majority of the laboratory values provided fall within the normal range, the value that the nurse should consider reporting to the provider, particularly when a client is taking amitriptyline, is:
Choice D Reason:
Total bilirubin 1.5 mg/dL is correct. Elevated levels of total bilirubin might indicate potential liver function impairment. Amitriptyline, an antidepressant, can affect liver enzymes in some individuals, causing hepatic changes. Therefore, it's crucial to monitor liver function tests, including total bilirubin, during amitriptyline therapy. An increase in bilirubin levels could signal hepatotoxicity or liver dysfunction related to the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
No explanation
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Giving the prescribed dose of clindamycin is not appropriate due to the reported penicillin allergy, which increases the risk of an allergic reaction.
Choice B Reason:
Obtain a prescription for an alternative antibiotic is correct. Given the client's reported allergy to penicillin, which is in the same antibiotic class as clindamycin (both are antibiotics that belong to the beta-lactam group), there is a higher risk of cross-reactivity and potential allergic reaction. Therefore, it's important to avoid administering clindamycin in such cases and seek an alternative antibiotic that does not have a similar chemical structure to penicillin to prevent an allergic reaction.
Choice C Reason:
Premeditating the client with epinephrine before administering the antibiotic is not a standard practice in this context. Epinephrine is used to treat severe allergic reactions but is not used as a preventive measure before administering antibiotics.
Choice D Reason:
Administering the clindamycin using a desensitization schedule might be an option in certain situations under the guidance of an allergist or immunologist, but it's not typically performed by nurses and requires a specific protocol and expertise in managing drug allergies. Obtaining an alternative antibiotic is a more appropriate and immediate action to avoid the risk of an allergic reaction in this scenario.
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