A nurse is providing discharge dietary teaching to a client who has a new prescription for theophylline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
"Limit your sodium intake."
"Restrict milk products."
"Avoid caffeinated beverages."
"Take the medication with meals."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
"Limit your sodium intake." Is incorrect. Sodium restriction might be appropriate for some cardiovascular or renal conditions, but it is not specifically related to theophylline use.
Choice B Reason:
"Restrict milk products." is incorrect. Restricting milk products is not a necessary dietary consideration for theophylline. However, consuming high-fat dairy products may delay the absorption of theophylline, potentially affecting its effectiveness.
Choice C Reason:
"Avoid caffeinated beverages." Is correct. Theophylline is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It belongs to the class of methylxanthine medications and acts similarly to caffeine. Consuming additional caffeine through beverages like coffee, tea, or certain sodas can increase the risk of adverse effects associated with theophylline, such as increased heart rate or nervousness. Hence, avoiding caffeinated beverages is advisable to minimize the risk of exacerbating these effects.
Choice D Reason:
"Take the medication with meals." Taking theophylline with or without meals is typically acceptable, but it's essential to maintain consistency in timing and avoid significant changes in dietary habits that might affect its absorption or metabolism.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Levothyroxine 100 mcg PO every morning is incorrect. Indicates the dosage (100 mcg) and the route (by mouth) to be taken every morning.
Choice B Reason:
Simvastatin 40 mg PO at bedtime: Specifies the dosage (40 mg) and the timing (at bedtime) for administration.
Choice C Reason:
Acetaminophen 500 mg every 4 hr RN for fever is correct. The term "RN" in this context might be interpreted as "right now" rather than the intended meaning, which could cause confusion regarding the frequency of acetaminophen administration. The nurse should seek clarification to ensure accurate and safe dosing instructions.
Choice D Reason:
Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for pain: Specifies the dosage (4 mg), the route (intravenous), and the frequency (every 4 hours as needed) for pain management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Bilateral muscle weakness is not typically associated specifically with fluid volume excess. Muscle weakness can result from various causes, such as electrolyte imbalances or certain medical conditions, but it's not a primary manifestation of fluid volume excess.
Choice B Reason:
Thready pulse is not correct. A thready pulse refers to a weak and barely palpable pulse. This is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or reduced cardiac output rather than fluid volume excess.
Choice C Reason:
Decreased bowel sounds is not correct. Reduced or absent bowel sounds may indicate gastrointestinal issues, but they are not a direct manifestation of fluid volume excess. Increased bowel sounds might be more associated with certain types of gastrointestinal disturbances or fluid imbalances, but decreased sounds are not a typical sign of fluid volume excess.
Choice D Reason:
Distended neck veins is correct. In a client experiencing fluid volume excess, distended neck veins can often be observed due to increased venous pressure. This occurs as a result of the body retaining more fluid than it can handle, leading to an increase in blood volume and pressure within the vascular system. This can cause the jugular veins in the neck to appear distended or prominent.
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