A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse identify as complete?
Aspirin 1 tablet daily
Furosemide 20 mg BID
Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
Metoprolol 5 mg now
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aspirin 1 tablet daily. This prescription is incomplete because it does not specify the dose in milligrams. Aspirin comes in multiple strengths, and clarity is essential to ensure safe administration.
B. Furosemide 20 mg BID. This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dosage (20 mg), and frequency (twice daily). It provides all necessary components for safe administration.
C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. This order lacks critical details such as the dosage, frequency, and duration of use. Without this information, the prescription is incomplete and cannot be safely implemented.
D. Metoprolol 5 mg now. Although it includes the medication, dosage, and timing, it does not specify the route (e.g., oral, IV), which is necessary for the prescription to be considered complete.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The client calls the office multiple times per day to speak with their provider. This behavior may indicate anxiety or dependence, but it does not reflect rationalization, which involves making excuses to justify behavior.
B. The client states, "I only act this way because my partner makes me so angry." This is a clear example of rationalization, where the client is attempting to justify unacceptable behavior by blaming it on someone else rather than taking personal responsibility.
C. The client does not listen to the nurse during a discussion about their diagnosis. This may indicate denial or avoidance, not rationalization. The client may be overwhelmed and unwilling to accept the diagnosis.
D. The client reports that they get upset with their family members for "no apparent reason." This may suggest emotional dysregulation or projection, but it lacks the clear element of excuse-making that defines rationalization.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Heart rate. The client has a heart rate of 120/min, which is tachycardia and may indicate dehydration, mania-related hyperactivity, or a response to poor nutritional status. This requires immediate follow-up to assess for cardiovascular strain or fluid imbalance.
B. Sleep pattern. While lack of sleep is concerning and a clear symptom of mania, it is a behavioral health issue that typically does not require immediate physiological intervention unless it leads to severe exhaustion or psychosis. It should be addressed, but is not the top priority.
C. Hallucinations. The client is responding to internal stimuli, indicating active psychosis, which poses a safety risk to the client and others. Hallucinations require immediate intervention to stabilize mental health and prevent harm.
D. Skin turgor. Poor skin turgor suggests dehydration, which is a priority physiological concern, especially when paired with tachycardia and failure to recall last food intake. This finding indicates the need for fluid and electrolyte evaluation and possible replacement.
E. Hygiene. The client's unclean appearance reflects self-neglect, a common feature of psychiatric decompensation, and may indicate inability to meet basic needs. This requires prompt attention to prevent complications like infection and assess for functional impairment, though it is secondary to life-threatening physiological or safety concerns.
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