A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse identify as complete?
Aspirin 1 tablet daily
Furosemide 20 mg BID
Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
Metoprolol 5 mg now
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aspirin 1 tablet daily. This prescription is incomplete because it does not specify the dose in milligrams. Aspirin comes in multiple strengths, and clarity is essential to ensure safe administration.
B. Furosemide 20 mg BID. This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dosage (20 mg), and frequency (twice daily). It provides all necessary components for safe administration.
C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. This order lacks critical details such as the dosage, frequency, and duration of use. Without this information, the prescription is incomplete and cannot be safely implemented.
D. Metoprolol 5 mg now. Although it includes the medication, dosage, and timing, it does not specify the route (e.g., oral, IV), which is necessary for the prescription to be considered complete.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Vital signs. The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (110/min) and elevated blood pressure (178/82 mm Hg), both of which can be associated with autonomic responses in dumping syndrome. The dizziness and desire to lie down after eating are also classic symptoms. These signs reflect the body’s reaction to rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts.
B. Prescribed diet. While a bland, soft diet is generally safe post-gastrectomy, it may not prevent dumping syndrome unless it includes specific modifications like low carbohydrate intake and small, frequent meals. However, this option alone does not directly indicate dumping syndrome.
C. Skin appearance. The client is noted to be diaphoretic and pale, which are common symptoms of dumping syndrome due to the vasomotor response and hypoglycemia that can follow rapid gastric emptying.
D. Blood glucose level. The client's fasting blood glucose dropped to 65 mg/dL, which is below the normal range. Hypoglycemia is a hallmark of late dumping syndrome, resulting from excessive insulin release after rapid carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
E. WBC count. The WBC count is within normal range (9,000/mm³) and does not indicate dumping syndrome or an infectious process. It is not relevant in this context.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "How long have you struggled with your weight?" While this may provide background information, it shifts the focus to the client's weight history rather than validating their current emotional experience and distress.
B. "Let's discuss some weight loss strategies that might work for you." This response prematurely shifts to problem-solving and weight management without first addressing the client’s emotional needs or acknowledging their feelings of embarrassment and vulnerability.
C. "It sounds like you're saying that you feel uncomfortable around others." This is a therapeutic, reflective response that validates the client’s feelings and encourages them to express more about their emotional experience, fostering trust and emotional support.
D. "Have you always felt uncomfortable being overweight?" This question may come across as judgmental and focuses too much on the client's body image history rather than their current emotional experience, potentially worsening feelings of shame.
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