A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse identify as complete?
Aspirin 1 tablet daily
Metoprolol 5 mg IV now
Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
Furosemide 20 mg BID
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aspirin 1 tablet daily: This prescription is incomplete because it does not specify the dosage strength (e.g., 81 mg or 325 mg). Without the strength, safe administration cannot be ensured.
B. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now: This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, exact dosage, route of administration, and timing (“now”), providing all necessary information for safe administration.
C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch: This prescription is incomplete as it does not specify the dosage strength (e.g., 0.1 mg/hr), location of application, or timing, which are necessary for safe and effective use.
D. Furosemide 20 mg BID: This prescription is incomplete because it does not specify the route of administration (oral or IV), which is essential for safe administration and proper monitoring of effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Anticipatory: Anticipatory grief occurs when a person begins to experience feelings of loss and mourning prior to the actual death of a loved one. The family member’s difficulty “letting go” reflects emotional processing and preparation for the impending death, which is characteristic of anticipatory grief.
B. Exaggerated: Exaggerated grief involves maladaptive, intense, or prolonged responses that interfere with daily functioning, often manifesting as severe depression or self-destructive behavior. The statement does not indicate such extreme reactions.
C. Delayed: Delayed grief is when the emotional response to loss is postponed or suppressed, often surfacing much later. The family member is actively expressing grief in the present, so this does not apply.
D. Disenfranchised: Disenfranchised grief occurs when a person’s loss is not socially recognized or validated, such as in cases of estranged relationships. In this scenario, the family member is openly expressing grief for a loved one, so it is not disenfranchised.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Platelet count: Platelet count evaluates clotting potential related to platelet number, but it is not used to monitor or dose warfarin therapy. Warfarin affects vitamin K–dependent clotting factors rather than platelets.
B. Fibrinogen level: Fibrinogen is a plasma protein essential for clot formation, but it is not used to guide warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen testing is more relevant in bleeding disorders or DIC, not routine anticoagulation management.
C. aPTT: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is primarily used to monitor heparin therapy. Warfarin does not significantly alter aPTT, so this test is not appropriate for warfarin dose adjustments.
D. INR: The international normalized ratio (INR) standardizes prothrombin time and is the primary laboratory test used to monitor warfarin therapy. Reporting the INR allows the provider to safely adjust the daily warfarin dose to maintain therapeutic anticoagulation.
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