A nurse is reviewing a client's peak and trough levels of gentamicin. The peak should be 6 to 8 mcg/mL and the trough should be 0.5 to 1 mcg/mL. The client's peak is10 mcg/mL and his trough is 2.3 mcg/mL. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect with these findings? (Select all that apply.)
Insomnia
Constipation
Xerostomia
Persistent headache
Tinnitus
Correct Answer : D,E
D. Persistent headache can occur with elevated levels of gentamicin, as it may indicate neurotoxicity. Gentamicin can cause neurotoxic effects, including headaches, especially when levels are elevated.
E. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is a classic symptom of gentamicin toxicity. Elevated gentamicin levels can lead to ototoxicity, which manifests as tinnitus among other auditory symptoms.
A. Insomnia is not typically associated with elevated levels of gentamicin. Elevated gentamicin levels are not known to cause insomnia.
B. Constipation is not typically associated with elevated levels of gentamicin. Elevated gentamicin levels are not known to cause constipation.
C. Xerostomia (dry mouth) is not typically associated with elevated levels of gentamicin. Elevated gentamicin levels are not known to cause xerostomia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This indicates a slight positive fluid balance (+100 mL), meaning the client has taken in slightly more fluids than they have excreted. This could be acceptable depending on the client's clinical condition and fluid status.
B. This indicates a negative fluid balance (-500 mL), suggesting the client has excreted more fluids than they have taken in. In some situations, such as in patients with certain conditions like edema, a negative balance might be intended.
C. This indicates a significant negative fluid balance (-1,300 mL), where the client has excreted much more fluid than they have taken in. This could indicate dehydration or fluid loss that needs to be addressed promptly.
D. This indicates a significant positive fluid balance (+2,000 mL), where the client has taken in much more fluid than they have excreted. This could indicate fluid retention, which might be acceptable in certain clinical conditions but could be problematic in others, such as in patients with congestive heart failure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A filter needle is used when withdrawing medication from an ampule, but it is not used to administer the injection. After withdrawal, the filter needle should be replaced with a regular IM needle for administration.
B. The ampule should be broken by snapping the neck away from the body, not by bending it to the side, to prevent injury.
C. The nurse should gently tap the top of the ampule, not the bottom, to move the solution downward before opening.
D. The correct technique is to insert the needle into the center of the ampule to withdraw medication, ensuring that the bevel remains below the fluid line to avoid drawing up air.
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