A nurse is reviewing a client's peak and trough levels of gentamicin. The peak should be 6 to 8 mcg/mL and the trough should be 0.5 to 1 mcg/mL. The client's peak is10 mcg/mL and his trough is 2.3 mcg/mL. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect with these findings? (Select all that apply.)
Insomnia
Constipation
Xerostomia
Persistent headache
Tinnitus
Correct Answer : D,E
D. Persistent headache can occur with elevated levels of gentamicin, as it may indicate neurotoxicity. Gentamicin can cause neurotoxic effects, including headaches, especially when levels are elevated.
E. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is a classic symptom of gentamicin toxicity. Elevated gentamicin levels can lead to ototoxicity, which manifests as tinnitus among other auditory symptoms.
A. Insomnia is not typically associated with elevated levels of gentamicin. Elevated gentamicin levels are not known to cause insomnia.
B. Constipation is not typically associated with elevated levels of gentamicin. Elevated gentamicin levels are not known to cause constipation.
C. Xerostomia (dry mouth) is not typically associated with elevated levels of gentamicin. Elevated gentamicin levels are not known to cause xerostomia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This indicates a slight positive fluid balance (+100 mL), meaning the client has taken in slightly more fluids than they have excreted. This could be acceptable depending on the client's clinical condition and fluid status.
B. This indicates a negative fluid balance (-500 mL), suggesting the client has excreted more fluids than they have taken in. In some situations, such as in patients with certain conditions like edema, a negative balance might be intended.
C. This indicates a significant negative fluid balance (-1,300 mL), where the client has excreted much more fluid than they have taken in. This could indicate dehydration or fluid loss that needs to be addressed promptly.
D. This indicates a significant positive fluid balance (+2,000 mL), where the client has taken in much more fluid than they have excreted. This could indicate fluid retention, which might be acceptable in certain clinical conditions but could be problematic in others, such as in patients with congestive heart failure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. This is the highest priority. Before administering ceftriaxone via IV piggyback, the nurse must ensure compatibility with the primary IV solution (D5W with KCl). Certain medications can interact chemically or physically with other IV solutions or medications, leading to precipitation, inactivation, or other adverse effects. Compatibility should be verified through appropriate resources or pharmacy guidelines.
A. Vital signs provide crucial information about the patient's overall condition, but they do not directly impact the administration of the IV medication ceftriaxone. However, if there are significant changes in vital signs (e.g., fever, hypotension), these could influence the decision to administer ceftriaxone or any medication.
C. Important, but not directly related to medication administration. The patient's level of consciousness is crucial for assessing their neurological status and response to treatment, but it does not affect the administration of ceftriaxone IV piggyback specifically.
D. Important, but not the highest priority in this context. Monitoring the amount of IV solution in the primary bag is essential to ensure continuous fluid delivery and prevent interruptions in therapy.
However, for the immediate preparation and administration of ceftriaxone IV piggyback, ensuring compatibility with the primary IV solution takes precedence.
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