A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who requires a bladder-training program for urinary incontinence.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
“Record your urination times for 24 hours before beginning the program.”
“Drink 4 liters of fluid between 6:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m.”
“Void every 2 hours while awake.”
“Eliminate caffeine from your diet.”
The Correct Answer is A
This instruction helps the client to establish a baseline of their bladder function and identify their voiding patterns. It also helps the nurse to design an individualized bladder-training program for the client.
Choice B is wrong because drinking 4 liters of fluid between 6:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m. is excessive and can increase the frequency and urgency of urination. The client should drink enough fluids to prevent dehydration and constipation, but avoid drinking large amounts at one time or before bedtime.
Choice C is wrong because voiding every 2 hours while awake is not a bladder- training technique, but a scheduled toilet trip. Bladder training requires following a fixed voiding schedule and delaying urination after feeling the urge to go. Voiding every 2 hours may not allow the bladder to fill sufficiently and may interfere with the goal of increasing the bladder capacity.
Choice D is wrong because eliminating caffeine from the diet is not a specific instruction for bladder training, but a general lifestyle strategy to ease bladder problems. Caffeine can irritate the bladder and act as a diuretic, which can increase urine production and frequency.
However, eliminating caffeine alone may not be enough to improve urinary incontinence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The HbA1c value determines long-term blood glucose control for the past 120 days. This is because the HbA1c test measures what percentage of hemoglobin proteins in your blood are coated with sugar (glycated). Hemoglobin proteins in red blood cells live for around 120 days, so the test reflects your average blood sugar level for the past two to three months.
Choice A is wrong because an HbA1c value greater than 8% indicates poor diabetic control of blood sugar. The HbA1c target for most people with type 1 diabetes is 48 mmol/mol (or 6.5%) or lower.
Choice B is wrong because the HbA1c value is not altered by eating habits the day before the test. The test does not require fasting and can be done at any time of the day.
Choice D is wrong because an HbA1c test should be performed more than once per year.
The frequency of the test depends on the type of diabetes, your treatment plan and your blood sugar level. For example, you may need the test twice a year if you have good blood sugar control, or four times a year if you take insulin or have trouble keeping your blood sugar level within your target range.
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