A nurse is reinforcing teaching about liquid iron supplements with a client who has anemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Take iron supplements between meals for maximum absorption.
Reduce gastric distress by taking iron supplements with an antacid.
Check for orange-colored stools after 4 days of treatment.
Mix iron supplements with milk to prevent staining of the teeth.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. The nurse should instruct the client to take iron supplements between meals for maximum absorption. Choice B is incorrect because antacids can decrease the absorption of iron. Choice C is incorrect because orange-colored stools may occur after the first dose of iron. Choice D is incorrect because milk can also decrease the absorption of iron. Choice B is not correct because antacids can decrease the absorption of iron. Choice C is not correct because orange-colored stools may occur after the first dose of iron. Choice D is not correct because milk can also decrease the absorption of iron.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This ABG result indicates that the client has an excess of carbon dioxide (CO2) due to hypoventilation.
A. "Metabolic acidosis" is an incorrect answer because the pH is low and the HCO3 is within normal range.
C. "Respiratory alkalosis" is an incorrect answer because the pH is low and the PaCO2 is elevated.
D. "Metabolic alkalosis" is an incorrect answer because the HCO3 is within normal range, and the pH is low.
Explanation: The ABG result shows a low pH, elevated PaCO2, and normal HCO3, indicating respiratory acidosis. This condition can be caused by conditions that affect breathing, such as pneumonia, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Answer is: d. Reposition the client.
Explanation: Repositioning the client can help alleviate pain by redistributing pressure and promoting comfort. Since the client's pain level is relatively low (2 on a scale of 0 to 10), this non-pharmacological intervention is an appropriate initial action.
Choice a. is wrong because maintaining the client on bed rest is not an appropriate action for a pain level of 2. Instead, the nurse should encourage the client to mobilize and perform appropriate exercises to prevent complications related to immobility.
Choice b. is wrong because applying a warm, moist compress to the incision area might not be the best action for a client who is 24 hours postoperative, as it could increase the risk of infection and cause discomfort. Cold compresses are often used in the initial postoperative period to reduce swelling and promote comfort.
Choice c. is wrong because administering an additional dose of pain medication is not necessary at this point, as the client's pain level is relatively low. The nurse should consider non-pharmacological interventions first and reassess the client's pain level to determine the need for further pain relief.
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