A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8%.
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
The Correct Answer is A
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is well- controlled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester. Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8.
Choice A rationale:
A Mantoux test with an induration after 48 hours can be a normal reaction, especially if the induration is within the expected size range for a positive result, depending on the individual’s risk factors and history. It does not necessarily require follow-up care unless the induration is significantly large or there are other concerning symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not typically require follow-up care for the sodium phosphate intake itself. Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel prep medication to clear the intestines prior to the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), so a client taking bumetanide with this potassium level would not typically require follow-up care for the potassium level alone.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care because the therapeutic range for warfarin is typically between 2.0 and 3.0 for most indications. An INR of 1.8 may indicate that the blood is not “thin” enough, increasing the risk of thrombotic events, and the warfarin dose may need adjustment.
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