A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8%.
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
The Correct Answer is A
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is well- controlled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because varicella, or chickenpox, is a highly contagious disease caused by the varicella- zoster virus (VZV), which can spread through the air or by direct contact with the fluid from the blisters. A negative air pressure room prevents the air from the room from circulating to other areas of the hospital, reducing the risk of transmission to other patients and staff.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children with chickenpox, as it can cause a serious condition called Reye’s syndrome, which affects the brain and liver. Instead, acetaminophen can be used to reduce fever.
Choice B is wrong because droplet precautions are not enough to prevent the spread of chickenpox. Droplet precautions involve wearing a mask and gloves when in close contact with the patient, but they do not prevent the virus from traveling through the air. Airborne precautions, which include a negative air pressure room and wearing a respirator, are needed for chickenpox.
Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are not a sign of chickenpox, but of measles, another viral infection that causes a rash. Chickenpox causes an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters that crust over.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments. The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly. The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding.
Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
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