A nurse is admitting an adolescent who has rubella. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer aspirin to the client.
Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant.
Initiate airborne precautions.
Monitor for the development of Koplik spots.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to the developing fetus if the pregnant person gets infected. Rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in hearing and vision loss, heart defects and other serious conditions in newborns.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral infections, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome, a rare but potentially fatal condition that affects the liver and brain.
Choice C is wrong because rubella does not require airborne precautions, which are used for diseases that can spread through very small droplets that can remain in the air for long periods of time, such as tuberculosis or measles. Rubella spreads through direct contact with saliva or mucus of an infected person, or through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing.
Therefore, standard and droplet precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are a characteristic sign of measles, not rubella.
Koplik spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks before the measles rash develops. Rubella causes a pink or red rash that usually starts on the face and moves down the body.
Normal ranges for rubella antibody tests are:
- IgM: Negative or less than 0.9 IU/mL
- IgG: Negative or less than 10 IU/mL
A positive IgM result indicates a recent or current infection, while a positive IgG result indicates a past infection or immunity from vaccination.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip. In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can relieve chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia. The nurse should administer it as soon as possible to improve blood flow to the heart and reduce the risk of myocardial infarction. The nurse should also monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate after giving nitroglycerin, as it can cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
Choice A is wrong because checking a STAT cardiac troponin is not the first priority.
Cardiac troponin is a biomarker that indicates myocardial injury, but it may not rise until several hours after the onset of chest pain.
Therefore, it is not useful for immediate diagnosis or treatment of acute coronary syndrome. Choice B is wrong because requesting a prescription for a beta-blocker is not the first priority.
Beta-blockers are medications that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, and reduce the oxygen demand of the heart.
They can prevent or reduce the recurrence of chest pain and complications of acute coronary syndrome, but they are not indicated for immediate relief of chest pain.
Choice D is wrong because administering oxygen is not the first priority.
Oxygen therapy can increase the oxygen supply to the heart and reduce ischemia, but it is not necessary for all clients with chest pain.
Oxygen therapy should be based on the client’s oxygen saturation level and clinical condition.
If the client’s oxygen saturation is normal or high, oxygen therapy may not be beneficial and may even be harmful.
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