A nurse is admitting an adolescent who has rubella. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer aspirin to the client.
Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant.
Initiate airborne precautions.
Monitor for the development of Koplik spots.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to the developing fetus if the pregnant person gets infected. Rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in hearing and vision loss, heart defects and other serious conditions in newborns.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral infections, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome, a rare but potentially fatal condition that affects the liver and brain.
Choice C is wrong because rubella does not require airborne precautions, which are used for diseases that can spread through very small droplets that can remain in the air for long periods of time, such as tuberculosis or measles. Rubella spreads through direct contact with saliva or mucus of an infected person, or through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing.
Therefore, standard and droplet precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are a characteristic sign of measles, not rubella.
Koplik spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks before the measles rash develops. Rubella causes a pink or red rash that usually starts on the face and moves down the body.
Normal ranges for rubella antibody tests are:
- IgM: Negative or less than 0.9 IU/mL
- IgG: Negative or less than 10 IU/mL
A positive IgM result indicates a recent or current infection, while a positive IgG result indicates a past infection or immunity from vaccination.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Hyperthermia is a condition in which the body temperature is abnormally high, usually due to exposure to heat, infection, or certain medications. Hyperthermia can cause neurological complications, such as seizures, confusion, or coma. Therefore, the nurse should initiate seizure precautions for an adolescent who has hyperthermia to prevent injury and protect the airway.
Choice A is wrong because covering the adolescent with a thermal blanket would increase the body temperature and worsen hyperthermia. The nurse should remove excess clothing and use cooling measures, such as fans, ice packs, or cool fluids.
Choice B is wrong because submerging the adolescent’s feet in ice water would cause vasoconstriction and shivering, which would reduce heat loss and increase heat production. The nurse should avoid using extreme cold or ice water to cool the body.
Choice D is wrong because administering oral acetaminophen would not be effective for hyperthermia caused by non-infectious factors, such as heat exposure or medications.
Acetaminophen lowers the body temperature by reducing the hypothalamic set point, which is not altered in hyperthermia. Additionally, oral medications may be difficult to swallow or absorb in a hyperthermic patient.
Normal body temperature ranges from 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F). Hyperthermia is defined as a body temperature above 38.5°C (101.3°F).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8.
Choice A rationale:
A Mantoux test with an induration after 48 hours can be a normal reaction, especially if the induration is within the expected size range for a positive result, depending on the individual’s risk factors and history. It does not necessarily require follow-up care unless the induration is significantly large or there are other concerning symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not typically require follow-up care for the sodium phosphate intake itself. Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel prep medication to clear the intestines prior to the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), so a client taking bumetanide with this potassium level would not typically require follow-up care for the potassium level alone.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care because the therapeutic range for warfarin is typically between 2.0 and 3.0 for most indications. An INR of 1.8 may indicate that the blood is not “thin” enough, increasing the risk of thrombotic events, and the warfarin dose may need adjustment.
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