A nurse is admitting an adolescent who has rubella. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer aspirin to the client.
Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant.
Initiate airborne precautions.
Monitor for the development of Koplik spots.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to the developing fetus if the pregnant person gets infected. Rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in hearing and vision loss, heart defects and other serious conditions in newborns.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral infections, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome, a rare but potentially fatal condition that affects the liver and brain.
Choice C is wrong because rubella does not require airborne precautions, which are used for diseases that can spread through very small droplets that can remain in the air for long periods of time, such as tuberculosis or measles. Rubella spreads through direct contact with saliva or mucus of an infected person, or through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing.
Therefore, standard and droplet precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are a characteristic sign of measles, not rubella.
Koplik spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks before the measles rash develops. Rubella causes a pink or red rash that usually starts on the face and moves down the body.
Normal ranges for rubella antibody tests are:
- IgM: Negative or less than 0.9 IU/mL
- IgG: Negative or less than 10 IU/mL
A positive IgM result indicates a recent or current infection, while a positive IgG result indicates a past infection or immunity from vaccination.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice b. “I can start the medication 30 minutes earlier.”.
Choice A rationale:
Adjusting the time and schedule for convenience is not appropriate for medications like vancomycin, which require precise timing to maintain therapeutic levels and avoid resistance.
Choice B rationale:
Starting the medication 30 minutes earlier is a reasonable adjustment that maintains the medication’s effectiveness and safety.
Choice C rationale:
Administering the medication up to 2 hours after the usual schedule time is incorrect because it could lead to subtherapeutic levels and reduced effectiveness.
Choice D rationale:
Infusing the medication at a faster rate is unsafe as it increases the risk of adverse reactions, such as "red man syndrome".
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because abruptly stopping TPN can cause hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level that can cause shakiness, diaphoresis, confusion, and seizures. Therefore, infusing dextrose 10% in water temporarily at the same rate as the TPN can prevent this adverse effect. Dextrose 10% in water is a hypertonic solution that contains 340 calories per liter and can maintain the client’s blood glucose level until the new TPN bag arrives.
Choice A is wrong because giving 500 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution would not provide enough calories or glucose to prevent hypoglycemia. Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution that contains electrolytes but no calories or glucose.
Choice B is wrong because temporarily discontinuing the infusion would cause hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening for the client.
Choice C is wrong because slowing the TPN infusion rate would also cause hypoglycemia, as the client would receive less calories and glucose than prescribed.
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