A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
For which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse monitor the client
Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick.
Pulse rate 100/min.
Urine output 20 mL/hr.
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The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason
Administering naloxone to the newborn is not appropriate. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose in adults. It is not typically used for newborns with neonatal abstinence syndrome. The management of NAS is primarily supportive, and medications may be prescribed to help manage specific withdrawal symptoms, but naloxone is not a standard treatment for NAS.
Choice B reason:
Minimizing noise in the newborn's environment is a crucial action in the plan of care is the correct action to be included. Newborns experiencing NAS can be easily overstimulated, and loud noises can exacerbate their withdrawal symptoms and distress. Creating a calm and quiet environment helps reduce agitation and promotes better sleep and overall comfort.
Choice C reason
Swaddling the newborn with his leg extended is not appropriate in this case. Swaddling can be beneficial for some newborns, but the specific positioning and swaddling techniques should be individualized based on the newborn's needs and preferences. Extending the newborn's legs may not necessarily be the best approach, as it may not provide comfort or address the symptoms associated with NAS.
Choice D reason:
Maintaining eye contact with the newborn during feedings is not appropriate in this case. While maintaining eye contact during feedings is an essential aspect of bonding and promoting parent-newborn attachment, it may not be the primary focus in managing neonatal abstinence syndrome. The plan of care for a newborn with NAS would primarily involve managing withdrawal symptoms, providing comfort measures, and addressing the newborn's unique needs during this challenging period.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The nurse should choose a vein that is palpable and straight for IV catheter insertion.
This will facilitate the insertion of the catheter and reduce the risk of complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, or hematoma. A straight vein will also allow the catheter to be inserted up to the hub, which reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter.
Choice A is wrong because selecting a site on the client’s dominant arm can interfere with the client’s mobility and increase the risk of dislodging the catheter. The nurse should choose a site on the client’s non-dominant arm, preferably on the hand or forearm.
Choice B is wrong because applying a tourniquet below the venipuncture site will impede blood flow and make it harder to locate a suitable vein. The nurse should apply a tourniquet above the venipuncture site, about 10 to 15 cm from the insertion site.
Choice C is wrong because elevating the client’s arm prior to insertion will decrease venous filling and make it harder to palpate a vein. The nurse should lower the client’s arm below the level of the heart to increase venous distension.
Normal ranges for IV catheter size and insertion angle depend on several factors, such as the type and duration of therapy, the condition and size of the vein, and the age and preference of the client.
In general, smaller gauge catheters (20 to 24) are preferred for peripheral IV therapy, and larger gauge catheters (14 to 18) are used for rapid fluid administration or blood transfusion. The insertion angle can vary from 10 to 30 degrees, depending on the depth and location of the vein.
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