A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
For which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse monitor the client
Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick.
Pulse rate 100/min.
Urine output 20 mL/hr.
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The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty. A vertebroplasty is a procedure that injects cement into a fractured vertebra to help relieve pain and stabilize the spine. The recovery time for this procedure is usually short and the complications are rare.
Therefore, this client is most likely to be stable and ready for early discharge.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) needs close monitoring of their blood levels and clotting factors. Heparin is a blood thinner that prevents the clots from getting bigger or breaking loose and traveling to the lungs, which can cause a life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE).
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy needs to be isolated in a special room to prevent exposure of others to radiation. A sealed implant is a small holder that contains a radioactive source that is placed inside or near the tumor to deliver high doses of radiation. This type of internal radiation therapy, also called brachytherapy, can last from several minutes to several days, depending on the type and dose of the radioactive source.
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min has signs of respiratory distress and possible hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood).
COP
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This statement should be included in the hand-off report because it provides essential information about the patient’s intraoperative status and potential postoperative complications, such as hypovolemia, anemia, or infection. The estimated blood loss (EBL) is an important indicator of the patient’s fluid balance and hemodynamic stability.
Choice A is wrong because “The client was intubated without complications.” is not relevant for the postoperative care of the patient. The intubation status is usually documented in the anesthesia record and does not need to be repeated in the hand-off report unless there were any issues or injuries related to the airway management.
Choice B is wrong because “There was a total of 10 sponges used during the procedure.” is not pertinent for the postoperative care of the patient.
The number of sponges used during the surgery is usually counted and verified by the scrub nurse and the circulating nurse in the operating room to prevent any retained foreign bodies. This information does not need to be communicated to the PACU nurse unless there was a discrepancy or a missing sponge.
Choice D is wrong because “The client is a member of the board of directors.” is not appropriate for the hand-off report.
This statement violates the patient’s privacy and confidentiality and does not contribute to the quality or safety of care. The patient’s role or position in the organization should not influence the hand-off communication or the postoperative care.
A hand-off report is a critical communication tool that facilitates the transfer of care from one provider to another. It should include relevant information about the patient’s medical history, surgical procedure, intraoperative events, postoperative plan, and any concerns or potential problems.
A standardized hand-off tool, such as SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation), can help improve the consistency, accuracy, and completeness of the hand-off report.
Some normal ranges that may be useful for postoperative care are:
- Blood pressure: 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg
- Pulse: 60 to 100 beats/min
- Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths/min
- Oxygen saturation: 95% to 100%
- Temperature: 36°C to 37.5°C
- Hemoglobin: 12 to 18 g/dL
- Hematocrit: 36% to 54%
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