A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
For which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse monitor the client
Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick.
Pulse rate 100/min.
Urine output 20 mL/hr.
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The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because the AP’s statement constitutes an intentional tort, which is a wrong that the defendant knew or should have known would be caused by their actions. An assault is defined as intentionally putting another person in reasonable apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive contact.
The AP’s threat of using restraints and force-feeding the client could cause the client to fear for their safety and dignity, which is an assault.
Choice B. Battery is wrong because battery is defined as intentional causation of harmful or offensive contact with another person without that person’s consent.
The AP did not actually touch the client or carry out the threat, so there was no battery.
Choice C. Negligence is wrong because negligence is an unintentional tort, which occurs when the defendant’s actions or inactions were unreasonably unsafe.
The AP did not act or fail to act in a way that breached the standard of care or caused harm to the client, so there was no negligence.
Choice D. Malpractice is wrong because malpractice is a type of negligence that involves a professional failing to perform their duties according to the standards of their profession.
The AP did not perform any professional duty or service that was below the standard of care or caused harm to the client, so there was no malpractice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C: “Do you have thoughts of harming yourself?”.
This is the priority question for the nurse to ask the client because it assesses the client’s risk for suicide, which is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of conduct disorder. The nurse should use a direct and nonjudgmental approach when asking about suicidal ideation and plan.
Choice A: “How do you get along with your peers at school?” is wrong because it is not the most urgent question to ask the client.
While it is important to assess the client’s social relationships and possible peer rejection, this can be done after addressing the client’s safety and mental status.
Choice B: “Do you have a criminal record?” is wrong because it is not relevant to the client’s current condition and might make the client feel defensive or stigmatized.
The nurse should avoid asking questions that imply blame or judgment and focus on the client’s strengths and coping skills.
Choice D: “How do you manage your behavior?” is wrong because it is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the client in an emergency department setting.
This question might imply that the client is responsible for their conduct disorder, which is a complex and multifactorial mental health condition. The nurse should collaborate with the client and their family to develop a behavior management plan that involves positive reinforcement, limit setting, and consistent consequences.
Normal ranges: According to the DSM-5, conduct disorder is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the rights of others or societal norms.
The symptoms of conduct disorder include aggression, deceitfulness, destruction of property, serious rule violations, and lack of remorse.
Conduct disorder can cause significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning. The prevalence of conduct disorder is estimated to be 4% among children and adolescents.
The risk factors for conduct disorder include genetic factors, neurobiological factors, environmental factors, and psychological factors.
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