A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
For which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse monitor the client
Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick.
Pulse rate 100/min.
Urine output 20 mL/hr.
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The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, hypertension. Hypertension is a contraindication to living kidney donation because it can increase the risk of kidney disease and cardiovascular complications in the donor. Hypertension can also affect the quality and survival of the donated kidney in the recipient.
Therefore, a potential donor with uncontrolled or poorly controlled hypertension should not undergo nephrectomy.
Choice A, osteoarthritis, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system.
It may cause pain and stiffness in the joints, but it can be managed with medications and physical therapy. A potential donor with osteoarthritis can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Choice B, primary glaucoma, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Primary glaucoma is a condition that causes increased pressure in the eye and can lead to vision loss if untreated.
It does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system. A potential donor with primary glaucoma can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Choice D, amputation, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Amputation is the surgical removal of a limb or part of a limb due to injury, infection, or disease.
It does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system. A potential donor with amputation can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg for systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively.
Normal ranges for kidney function are eGFR above 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and albuminuria below 30 mg/g.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. “The more my baby is at the breast sucking, the more milk I will produce.” This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because it reflects the principle of supply and demand in breastfeeding. The more the baby stimulates the breast, the more milk the mother will produce.
Choice B is wrong because manually expressing milk will not decrease the milk supply. In fact, it can help increase the milk supply by removing more milk from the breast and signaling the body to make more.
Choice C is wrong because the breast is not emptied after 5 to 10 minutes of feeding. The baby should be allowed to nurse until they are satisfied and show signs of fullness, such as releasing the nipple, falling asleep, or turning away from the breast. The average duration of a feeding session can vary from 10 to 45 minutes.
Choice D is wrong because the baby should not always start on the same breast when feeding. The mother should alternate which breast she offers first to ensure both breasts are stimulated and drained equally.
This can help prevent engorgement, mastitis, and low milk supply. A simple way to remember which breast to start with is to wear a bracelet or a clip on the bra strap on the side that needs to be offered next.
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