A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min.
The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
Maternal hypoglycemia.
Maternal fever.
Chorioamnionitis.
Fetal anemia.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice a. Maternal hypoglycemia.
Choice A rationale:
Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, causing a sustained low fetal heart rate. Hypoglycemia in the mother can affect the fetus by reducing the availability of glucose, which is essential for fetal metabolism and heart function.
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Choice B rationale:
Maternal fever is more commonly associated with fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Fever in the mother can lead to an increased fetal heart rate, not a decreased one.
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Choice C rationale:
Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid, which can lead to fetal distress and tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
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Choice D rationale:
Fetal anemia can also cause bradycardia, but in this scenario, maternal hypoglycemia is a more immediate concern as it directly affects the fetal heart rate by impacting the fetal metabolic processes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Determine the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale score. This is because the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool to assess the level of consciousness and neurological status of a client who has a closed head injury. The GCS score can help guide the priority of interventions and the need for further diagnostic tests.
Choice A is wrong because an MRI of the brain is not the first action to take for a client who has a closed head injury. An MRI may be indicated later to evaluate the extent of brain damage, but it is not an emergency procedure.
Choice B is wrong because mannitol IV bolus is a medication that reduces intracranial pressure (ICP) by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue. However, mannitol should not be administered before confirming the presence and degree of increased ICP, which can be done by measuring the GCS score and other vital signs.
Choice D is wrong because inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for the client is not the first action to take for a client who has a closed head injury. A urinary catheter may be needed to monitor fluid balance and renal function, but it is not an urgent intervention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Ketorolac is incorrect because it is an NSAID that is used for short-term pain relief. It has a higher risk of causing irritation to the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice B reason:
Acetaminophen is the correct answer. When caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer, the nurse should administer Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is an analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer) that does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is a suitable option for pain relief in clients with a history of peptic ulcers because it is less likely to cause irritation to the stomach lining compared to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Choice C reason
Aspirin is not appropriate: Aspirin is an NSAID with anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties. Like other NSAIDs, it can increase the risk of stomach irritation and should be avoided in clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice D reason:
Ibuprofen is not the right option: Ibuprofen is another NSAID commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation and fever. Like other NSAIDs, it can irritate the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
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