A nurse is caring for an infant who has coarctation of the aorta.
Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding?
Frequent nosebleeds.
Upper extremity hypotension.
Weak femoral pulses.
Increased intracranial pressure.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition where the aorta is narrow, usually in the area where the ductus arteriosus inserts. This causes a decrease in blood flow to the lower body, resulting in weak or absent pulses in the femoral arteries.
The other choices are incorrect for the following reasons:
Choice A is not a typical sign of coarctation of the aorta.
Nosebleeds can be caused by many factors, such as dry air, allergies, trauma, or bleeding disorders.
Choice B is also not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta. In fact, patients with this condition may have high blood pressure in the upper extremities due to the increased resistance of the narrowed aorta.
Choice D is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
Increased intracranial pressure can be caused by various conditions that affect the brain, such as head injury, stroke, infection, or tumor.
Normal ranges for blood pressure and pulse vary depending on age, sex, and health status. However, some general guidelines are:
- Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mmHg for adults; less than 95/65 mmHg for infants.
- Pulse: 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults; 100 to 160 beats per minute for infants.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Preterm pre-labor rupture of membranes (PROM) is the spontaneous rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor in a pregnancy less than 37 weeks gestation. It can lead to
infection, cord prolapse, placental abruption, and preterm delivery. The client has risk factors for PROM such as a history of preterm birth and a current infection indicated by fever.
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. The client has signs of sepsis such as fever, tachycardia, and possible organ dysfunction. The client may have a urinary tract infection, a common cause of sepsis in pregnancy, or an intrauterine infection due to PROM or other factors.
Preeclampsia is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have high blood pressure or proteinuria, which are the defining features of preeclampsia. Seizures are not a likely complication for this client because she does not have epilepsy or eclampsia, which are the leading causes of seizures in pregnancy. Placenta previa is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have painless vaginal bleeding, which is the hallmark symptom of placenta previa.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A vertebroplasty is a procedure that injects cement into a fractured vertebra to help relieve pain and stabilize the spine. The recovery time for this procedure is usually short and the complications are rare.
Therefore, this client is most likely to be stable and ready for early discharge.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) needs close monitoring of their blood levels and clotting factors. Heparin is a blood thinner that prevents the clots from getting bigger or breaking loose and traveling to the lungs, which can cause a life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE).
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy needs to be isolated in a special room to prevent exposure of others to radiation. A sealed implant is a smallholder that contains a radioactive source that is placed inside or near the tumor to deliver high doses of radiation. This type of internal radiation therapy, also called brachytherapy, can last from several minutes to several days, depending on the type and dose of the radioactive source.
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min has signs of respiratory distress and possible hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood).
COP
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.