A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a fracture of the right fibula with a shortleg cast in place and a new prescription for crutches. The client is non-weight-bearing for 6 weeks. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Adjust the crutches for comfort as needed.
Use a three-point gait.
Wear leather-soled shoes.
Advance the affected leg first when walking upstairs.
The Correct Answer is B
- A. Adjust the crutches for comfort as needed. This is incorrect because the crutches should be adjusted to fit the client's height and arm length, and should not be changed without proper guidance.
- B. Use a three-point gait. This is correct because this gait allows the client to avoid putting weight on the affected leg and maintain balance and stability.
- C. Wear leather-soled shoes. This is incorrect because leather-soled shoes can be slippery and increase the risk of falls and injuries.
- D. Advance the affected leg first when walking upstairs. This is incorrect because the client should advance the unaffected leg first when walking upstairs, and the affected leg first when walking downstairs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Ask the partner to list specific concerns.
- A. Evaluate the changes the partner requests: This is incorrect because it is not the first action to take. The charge nurse should first listen to and acknowledge the partner's complaints before evaluating any changes or solutions.
- B. Review the client's plan of care: This is incorrect because it is not the first action to take. The charge nurse should first understand what aspects of care are unsatisfactory for the partner and why they feel that way.
- C. Analyze other reports of poor care to look for trends: This is incorrect because it is not relevant to this situation. The charge nurse should focus on addressing this specific case of dissatisfaction rather than looking for general patterns or issues.
- D. Ask the partner to list specific concerns: This is correct because it shows respect and empathy for the partner and allows for clarification and communication of their expectations and needs. It also helps identify any gaps or misunderstandings in the client's care and facilitates problem-solving and resolution.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Uterine rupture typically presents with intense, constant abdominal pain and signs of shock. However, the absence of visible bleeding in the abdominal cavity makes this choice less likely in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Placental abruption involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. The sudden, severe abdominal pain, moderate vaginal bleeding, persistent uterine contractions, and signs of hypovolemic shock (low blood pressure, rigid abdomen) are indicative of placental abruption. This condition requires immediate medical intervention due to the risk of fetal and maternal compromise.
Choice C rationale:
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The severe abdominal pain described in the scenario is inconsistent with placenta previa.
Choice D rationale:
Amniotic fluid embolus is a rare and life-threatening condition in which amniotic fluid enters the maternal bloodstream, causing an allergic reaction. It can lead to sudden cardiovascular collapse. Although it can cause respiratory distress and hypotension, it does not usually present with severe abdominal pain or uterine contractions.
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