A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to adjusting the client's heparin?

aPTT

INR

WBC count

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.

- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.

- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.

- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "Limit each of the client's visitors to 2 hr per day."
This is incorrect. While visitors should have their exposure limited, the recommended duration is typically much shorter (around 30 minutes to 1 hour), not 2 hours. This is to reduce radiation exposure.

B. "Instruct visitors to stay 1 m (3.3 feet) away from the client."
This is correct. For clients undergoing brachytherapy with a low-dose radiation implant, visitors should maintain a safe distance, usually at least 6 feet (1.8 meters), but some guidelines may state a minimum of 3.3 feet (1 meter) for safety, depending on the specific radiation dose and facility protocols.

C. "Attach a dosimeter to the client's gown."
This is incorrect. Dosimeters are generally worn by healthcare providers, not the patient. The primary purpose is to measure the radiation exposure of healthcare workers, not the patient.

D. "Strain the client's urine."
This is incorrect. Straining urine is not necessary for a patient undergoing brachytherapy. However, it may be important to monitor the urine for signs of radiation leakage, but straining is not a routine part of care.

A. Random plasma glucose 176 mg/dL. B. Triglycerides 182 mg/dL. C. HbA1c 6.8%. D. Fasting blood glucose 120 mg/dL.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A random plasma glucose level of 176 mg/dL indicates high blood sugar at the time of the test. Random glucose levels are not ideal for assessing glycemic control as they can vary based on recent food intake and stressors.

Choice B rationale:

Triglyceride levels are not used to assess glycemic control. They measure the amount of triglycerides in the bloodstream and are related to lipid metabolism, not glucose control.

Choice C rationale:

HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is a long-term measure of blood glucose control. An HbA1c level of 6.8% indicates acceptable glycemic control in a person with diabetes. The normal range for HbA1c is typically less than 6.5%. This test reflects the average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months, giving a better understanding of overall glucose control.

Choice D rationale:

Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL is slightly elevated. While fasting blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL are generally considered normal, levels between 100-125 mg/dL are considered prediabetic, and levels above 126 mg/dL on two separate occasions indicate diabetes. The result provided falls within the prediabetic range but does not indicate optimal glycemic control.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to adjusting the client's heparin?

Nursing Test Bank

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