A nurse is providing teaching for a client diagnosed with depression.
Which of the following should the nurse identify as a primary risk factor for this disorder?
Recent history of stressful, positive life events.
Being male and over the age of 80.
Being an only child.
Having elevated levels of serotonin.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A recent history of stressful, positive life events is not a primary risk factor for depression. While any significant life change can trigger stress and potentially contribute to depression, it is typically negative or traumatic events that are most strongly associated with an increased risk of depression.
Choice B rationale
Being male and over the age of 80 is a primary risk factor for depression. Older adults, particularly those with chronic medical conditions, are at an increased risk of depression. Additionally, while women are more likely than men to experience depression at younger ages, the gender gap narrows with age.
Choice C rationale
Being an only child is not a primary risk factor for depression. While family history can play a role in depression risk, it is typically a history of depression in first-degree relatives that is most strongly associated with an increased risk.
Choice D rationale
Having elevated levels of serotonin is not a primary risk factor for depression. In fact, it is typically low levels of serotonin that are associated with an increased risk of depression. Informed consent Explore
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A client diagnosed with preeclampsia reporting epigastric pain and unresolved headache is a serious concern. Epigastric pain could indicate severe liver involvement, and a persistent headache could be a sign of progressing neurological involvement, both of which are severe features of preeclampsia. These symptoms suggest the condition may be worsening to eclampsia, a life-threatening complication characterized by the onset of seizure activity or coma in a woman with preeclampsia. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
A tearful client at 32 weeks of gestation experiencing irregular, frequent contractions could be experiencing preterm labor. However, emotional distress and contractions do not necessarily indicate a medical emergency. It’s important to monitor the situation, but it does not need to be immediately reported to the provider.
Choice C rationale
A client diagnosed with preeclampsia having 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes are expected findings. Proteinuria is a common sign of preeclampsia, and hyperreflexia can occur due to increased neuromuscular irritability. While these should be monitored, they do not need to be immediately reported to the provider.
Choice D rationale
A client at 28 weeks of gestation receiving terbutaline reporting fine tremors is an expected side effect of the medication. Terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist, can cause tremors by stimulating the nervous system. While it may be uncomfortable for the client, it is not a medical emergency.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Facial edema, or swelling in the face, can be a sign of a serious complication during pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys.
Choice B rationale
Leukorrhea, or a thick, milky discharge from the vagina, is a common and normal symptom of pregnancy. It is not typically a sign of a complication.
Choice C rationale
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy. However, severe or persistent nausea and vomiting can indicate a condition called hyperemesis gravidarum, which requires medical attention.
Choice D rationale
Urinary frequency is a common symptom during pregnancy and is not typically a sign of a complication.
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