A nurse is providing education to a group of older adults about the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is not a sign of a myocardial infarction?

Cool, clammy skin

Chest pain radiating into the back and jaw

Nausea and vomiting

Peripheral edema

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Cool, clammy skin can be a sign of a myocardial infarction. It occurs due to the body's stress response during an MI, leading to decreased perfusion and sweating. This symptom is consistent with the autonomic response to a heart attack.
B.   Chest pain radiating into the back, jaw, or arms is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction. This radiation of pain is due to the way pain signals are transmitted and referred from the heart to other parts of the body. It is a common and significant symptom of MI.

C.   Nausea and vomiting can occur during a myocardial infarction, particularly in older adults. These symptoms are related to the autonomic nervous system's response to the stress of an MI and can sometimes be the presenting symptoms, especially in women and older adults.
D.   Peripheral edema is generally not a direct symptom of myocardial infarction. It is more commonly associated with chronic heart failure or other conditions leading to fluid overload. While MI can lead to heart failure over time, peripheral edema itself is not a typical acute symptom of an MI.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of primary open-angle glaucoma. In POAG, increased intraocular pressure causes damage to the optic nerve, leading to a gradual loss of peripheral vision. This vision loss is often subtle and progresses slowly, making it difficult for individuals to notice until the condition is advanced.

B. Opacity of the lens is characteristic of cataracts, not glaucoma. Cataracts involve the clouding of the eye's natural lens, which leads to blurred vision and difficulties with seeing clearly, particularly in bright light. While cataracts and glaucoma can occur simultaneously, opacity of the lens is not indicative of POAG.
C. Decrease in color perception can be associated with various eye conditions, including age-related macular degeneration (AMD) and certain types of retinal diseases. While it can occur in glaucoma as the disease progresses, it is not the primary or most characteristic sign of POAG.
D. Pain and purulent discharge are more associated with acute conditions such as conjunctivitis (pink eye) or an eye infection, rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. POAG typically presents without pain or discharge, as it is a chronic condition with a gradual onset of symptoms.

A. The bleeding occurs from peptic ulcers in the stomach. B. This type of bleeding is treated by giving chewable aspirin. C. The bleeding occurs from tears in the lining of the duodenum. D. The bleeding occurs from a tear in the mucosal lining where the esophagus meets the stomach.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

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A nurse is providing education to a group of older adults about the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is not a sign of a myocardial infarction?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic is assessing a client who has suspected primary open-angle glaucoma (PAOG). Which assessment finding would support a diagnosis of this type of glaucoma?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The patient is admitted with upper GI bleeding following an episode of forceful vomiting due to excessive alcohol intake. The nurse suspects a Mallory-Weiss tear. Which of the following is true of a Mallory-Weiss tear?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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