A nurse is assessing a client who has osteoarthritis of the right hand. Which of the following would be the preferred treatment for this client?

Prednisone

Etanercept

Ibuprofen

Hydroxychloroquine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. While effective for reducing inflammation and pain, corticosteroids are generally not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis. They are more commonly used for inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
B.   Etanercept is a biologic agent used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis by targeting tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) to reduce inflammation. It is not indicated for osteoarthritis, which is a non-inflammatory degenerative joint disease rather than an autoimmune inflammatory disease.
C.   Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used to manage pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis. NSAIDs like ibuprofen are often the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis because they help reduce pain and inflammation, improve function, and enhance the quality of life for patients. Ibuprofen is a suitable and preferred option for managing symptoms of osteoarthritis.
D.   Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial drug that is also used to treat autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. It works by modulating the immune system and reducing inflammation. However, it is not typically used for osteoarthritis, which is not an autoimmune condition.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This statement is not accurate in the context of miotic medications. Miotic drugs do not work by blocking neural impulses to the muscles. Instead, they directly affect the eye's pupil size and fluid dynamics. This response does not correctly describe the action of miotic agents.
B. This response is incorrect because miotic medications actually constrict the pupil, not dilate it. In acute angle-closure glaucoma, dilation of the pupil would worsen the condition by further blocking the drainage angle. Miotics are used to constrict the pupil, which helps open the angle between the iris and the cornea, thereby facilitating fluid drainage.

C. Miotic medications cause the pupil to constrict (miosis), which helps in opening the narrow angle between the iris and the cornea. In acute angle-closure glaucoma, the angle is closed or narrow, preventing proper drainage of aqueous humor. By constricting the pupil, miotic medications can help to relieve this obstruction and allow better drainage of fluid, thereby reducing intraocular pressure.
D. This statement is incorrect regarding the action of miotic medications. Miotic drugs do not pull aqueous humor into the bloodstream. Their primary effect is on the pupil's size and the angle of the eye to improve drainage. Medications that reduce aqueous humor production or increase its outflow, such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors or prostaglandin analogs, are responsible for these actions

A. The procedure uses electrical energy to destroy areas of the conduction system. B. The procedure uses cold therapy to stop the formation of the flutter waves. C. The procedure removes clots which have formed in the atria. D. The procedure stimulates the growth of new conduction pathways between the atria.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Radiofrequency catheter ablation involves the use of electrical energy (radiofrequency energy) delivered through a catheter to destroy or ablate the areas of the heart tissue responsible for the abnormal electrical signals causing atrial flutter. This destruction of tissue helps to interrupt the abnormal electrical pathways and restore normal rhythm.
B. The procedure for atrial flutter ablation does not use cold therapy. Instead, it uses radiofrequency energy (heat) to ablate the tissue. Cold therapy, or cryoablation, is a different technique that uses extreme cold to achieve similar effects but is not the standard approach for radiofrequency catheter ablation.
C. Radiofrequency catheter ablation does not involve removing clots. The primary purpose of the procedure is to ablate abnormal tissue causing arrhythmias, not to address clots. Managing clots may involve anticoagulant therapy or other treatments, but it is not the focus of ablation.
D. Radiofrequency catheter ablation does not stimulate the growth of new conduction pathways. Instead, it aims to destroy the abnormal conduction pathways responsible for arrhythmias.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has osteoarthritis of the right hand. Which of the following would be the preferred treatment for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A miotic medication has been prescribed for a client with acute angle-closure glaucoma. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the medication. Which response should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient who is scheduled for a radiofrequency catheter ablation for treatment of atrial flutter?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who will begin a prolonged course of prednisone to treat a multiple sclerosis flare. What information should the nurse include in the education about this medication?

A nurse educator who leads a residency program for new nurses is educating the new nurses on the trajectory of chronic illness. The nurse recognizes a need for further teaching when one of the new nurses states which of the following?

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. After performing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), the underlying cause of the condition is found to be hyperplasia of the adrenal glands. Which of the following lab results would the nurse anticipate with this condition?

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