A nurse is assessing a client who has osteoarthritis of the right hand. Which of the following would be the preferred treatment for this client?

Prednisone

Etanercept

Ibuprofen

Hydroxychloroquine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. While effective for reducing inflammation and pain, corticosteroids are generally not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis. They are more commonly used for inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
B.   Etanercept is a biologic agent used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis by targeting tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) to reduce inflammation. It is not indicated for osteoarthritis, which is a non-inflammatory degenerative joint disease rather than an autoimmune inflammatory disease.
C.   Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used to manage pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis. NSAIDs like ibuprofen are often the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis because they help reduce pain and inflammation, improve function, and enhance the quality of life for patients. Ibuprofen is a suitable and preferred option for managing symptoms of osteoarthritis.
D.   Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial drug that is also used to treat autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. It works by modulating the immune system and reducing inflammation. However, it is not typically used for osteoarthritis, which is not an autoimmune condition.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The immediate concern with abrupt cessation is more related to adrenal insufficiency rather than hyperglycemia. However, chronic use of prednisone can contribute to glucose intolerance and diabetes, but this is not the primary issue with sudden discontinuation.
B. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency because the body has become reliant on the medication to suppress inflammation and regulate various bodily functions. The adrenal glands may not immediately resume normal cortisol production, which can lead to symptoms of adrenal insufficiency, including hypotension.

C. Fluid retention is a common side effect of prednisone use. However, stopping prednisone suddenly does not typically cause fluid retention; rather, it can lead to other issues like adrenal insufficiency. Fluid retention is more related to the medication's use rather than its abrupt discontinuation.
D. Abruptly stopping high-dose prednisone, especially after long-term use, can be dangerous. The body may not immediately resume normal cortisol production, leading to symptoms of adrenal insufficiency, such as fatigue, weakness, and hypotension. It is crucial to taper off prednisone gradually under medical supervision to allow the adrenal glands time to recover and to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

A. The bleeding occurs from peptic ulcers in the stomach. B. This type of bleeding is treated by giving chewable aspirin. C. The bleeding occurs from tears in the lining of the duodenum. D. The bleeding occurs from a tear in the mucosal lining where the esophagus meets the stomach.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is assessing a client who has osteoarthritis of the right hand. Which of the following would be the preferred treatment for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has been on daily, high-dose prednisone therapy to treat an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next paycheck. He decides to skip his prednisone for a few days. What is likely to happen to this patient when he abruptly stops taking prednisone?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The patient is admitted with upper GI bleeding following an episode of forceful vomiting due to excessive alcohol intake. The nurse suspects a Mallory-Weiss tear. Which of the following is true of a Mallory-Weiss tear?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has been on levothyroxine for several months. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. When creating the nutritional plan of care for the client, which of the following foods would be appropriate to include?

A nurse is admitting a client who is experiencing an Addisonian crisis. Which of the following should the nurse anticipate an order for?

A nurse is caring for a client who has shortness of breath and a chronic cough. The client has smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for the last 20 years. Which finding on the client's chest x-ray would be consistent with a diagnosis of advanced COPD?

A nurse is caring for a 43-year-old female client who reports abdominal pain. Exhibits For each potential provider's order, click to specify if the potential order is anticipated or contraindicated for this client.

Which of the following clients is at a higher risk of developing osteoarthritis?

A nurse is caring for a 44-year-old female client in the emergency department. Exhibits Complete the following sentence by using the list of options. The client is experiencing caused by