A nurse is providing education to a client who is suspected of having type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements would the nurse include in client education?
"This type of diabetes means that the cells in your pancreas do not produce any insulin."
"This can be a reversible condition, so we will discuss ways to improve your health."
"Your HbA1c level of 5.7% or below indicates you have impaired glucose tolerance."
"Since you still have working beta cells, you can try a diet to lower your blood sugar."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "This type of diabetes means that the cells in your pancreas do not produce any insulin.": Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas, which results in an absolute deficiency of insulin. Patients require insulin therapy for management.
B. "This can be a reversible condition, so we will discuss ways to improve your health.": Type 1 diabetes is not reversible. It is a lifelong condition that requires continuous insulin therapy.
C. "Your HbA1c level of 5.7% or below indicates you have impaired glucose tolerance.": An HbA1c level of 5.7% or below is considered normal or indicative of well-controlled blood glucose levels, not impaired glucose tolerance. Impaired glucose tolerance is typically identified with HbA1c levels from 5.7% to 6.4%.
D. "Since you still have working beta cells, you can try a diet to lower your blood sugar.": In type 1 diabetes, the beta cells are mostly or completely non-functional, meaning dietary changes alone are insufficient. Insulin replacement is necessary.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Carvedilol: Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can worsen asthma symptoms because it can cause bronchoconstriction. Non-selective beta-blockers like carvedilol can exacerbate respiratory conditions and should be used with caution in asthmatic patients.
B. Isosorbide dinitrate: Isosorbide dinitrate is a vasodilator used to reduce the workload on the heart by dilating blood vessels. It does not affect respiratory function and is safe for use in clients with asthma.
C. Fluticasone: Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is beneficial for clients with asthma and does not require clarification.
D. Captopril: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat heart failure. It does not directly affect asthma and is generally safe for use in clients with respiratory conditions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic: Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic agonist (such as albuterol) is the highest priority because it rapidly opens the airways by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscle. This intervention is crucial for immediate relief of bronchospasm and improving ventilation during an asthma exacerbation.
B. Initiating oxygen therapy: While oxygen therapy is important for maintaining adequate oxygenation, it does not address the underlying bronchoconstriction. Therefore, it is secondary to bronchodilator administration in terms of priority.
C. Providing immediate rest for the client: Rest is important, but it is not an immediate priority in an acute asthma exacerbation. The primary focus should be on improving airway patency and breathing.
D. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's: Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can help facilitate breathing and maximize lung expansion, but it does not address the acute bronchospasm. Thus, it is a supportive measure rather than the highest priority.
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