A nurse is providing client teaching about the basal body temperature method of birth control. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Your body temperature will drop approximately 1 degree 1 week after ovulation."
"You should take your body temperature each evening prior to going to sleep."
"Your body temperature might decrease slightly just prior to ovulation."
"Your body temperature is at its highest during menstruation."
The Correct Answer is C
A. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature does not drop 1 degree 1 week after ovulation. The body temperature rises slightly (about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Fahrenheit) after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period.
B. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature should be taken each morning before getting out of bed or doing any activity. Taking the temperature in the evening can result in inaccurate readings due to variations in daily activities, meals, stress, exercise, etc.
C. This choice is correct because the body temperature might decrease slightly (about 0.2 degrees Fahrenheit) just prior to ovulation due to a surge in estrogen levels. This dip in temperature can indicate that ovulation is about to occur and that the client should avoid unprotected intercourse if she wants to prevent pregnancy.
D. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature is not at its highest during menstruation. The body temperature drops at the onset of menstruation due to a decline in progesterone levels and marks the beginning of a new cycle.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
A. Postpartum hemorrhage is incorrect because the client has scant lochia rubra and a firm fundus at the umbilicus, which indicate normal uterine involution and bleeding.
B. Seizures is correct because the client has signs of severe preeclampsia, such as headache, blurred vision, nausea, hyperreflexia, and clonus. These are indications of increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema, which can lead to seizures or eclampsia.
C. Hyperglycemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of diabetes mellitus or gestational diabetes in the client's history or findings.
D. Hypoxemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of respiratory distress or impaired gas exchange in the client's history or findings.
E. Infection is incorrect because the client has no signs of infection, such as fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or elevated WBC count.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
An oil retention enema is used to soften the stool and lubricate the rectum, making it easier to pass the
stool. It is usually oil-based and contains 90-120 ml of solution.
The temperature of the enema solution affects the effectiveness and comfort of the procedure. If the solution is too hot or cold, it can cause pain, cramps, or damage to the rectal tissue. If the solution is too warm, it can also stimulate peristalsis and cause the client to expel the enema before it has time to work.
The ideal temperature for an enema solution is close to the client's body temperature, which is around 98°F or 36°C. This temperature ensures that the solution is comfortable and does not cause adverse reactions .
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