A nurse is preparing to instill an otic suspension into an adult client's ear.
Which of the following methods should the nurse plan to use?
Pull the auricle upward and outward.
Pull the auricle downward and backward.
Pull the auricle upward and backward.
Pull the auricle downward and outward.
None
None
The Correct Answer is A
Answer: A. Pull the auricle upward and outward.
Rationale:
A. Pull the auricle upward and outward:
Pulling the auricle upward and outward is the recommended technique for instilling ear drops in an adult. This method straightens the ear canal, allowing better access for the medication to reach the target area. It is essential for effective delivery and absorption of the otic suspension.
B. Pull the auricle downward and backward:
Pulling the auricle downward and backward is appropriate for children under three years old, as it aligns their shorter and straighter ear canal. In adults, this approach would not straighten the canal sufficiently for optimal medication instillation.
C. Pull the auricle upward and backward:
While pulling the auricle upward and backward can straighten the adult ear canal, the optimal direction to ensure the ear canal is fully open is upward and outward. This position allows the medication to reach deeper parts of the ear canal effectively.
D. Pull the auricle downward and outward:
Pulling the auricle downward and outward is not suitable for adults and does not provide the correct alignment for an adult ear canal. This technique is ineffective in reaching the canal's deeper parts in adult clients, thus limiting the efficacy of the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A nurse reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has DKA should identify that the client's ABG results of pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 34 mm Hg and HCO₃ 21 mEq/L indicate metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is an acid-base imbalance characterized by a low pH (less than 7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (less than 22 mEq/L).
The other options are not correct.
a) Respiratory alkalosisis an acid-base imbalance characterized by a high pH (greater than 7.45) and a low PaCO₂ (less than 35 mm Hg).
b) Metabolic alkalosisis an acid-base imbalance characterized by a high pH (greater than 7.45) and a high bicarbonate level (greater than 26 mEq/L).
d) Respiratory acidosisis an acid-base imbalance characterized by a low pH (less than 7.35) and a high PaCO₂ (greater than 45 mm Hg).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The subjective indication that the client needs PRN (as needed) pain medication is when the client reports pain. Pain is a subjective experience, and it is essential to address the client's self-reported pain level and provide appropriate pain management.
Explanation for the other options:
a) The client's heart rate is 110/min: An increased heart rate can be an objective indication of pain, but it is not a subjective indication. Subjective indications are based on the client's self-report or personal experiences.
b) The client is guarding their abdominal incision: Guarding the abdominal incision may suggest discomfort or pain, but it is an objective indication that can be observed by the nurse. Subjective indications focus on the client's self-report.
c) The client exhibits facial grimacing: Facial grimacing can be an objective indication of pain, but it is not a subjective indication. Again, subjective indications are based on the client's self-report or personal experiences.
In this scenario, the most reliable and appropriate indication for administering PRN pain medication is when the client reports pain, as this acknowledges the client's own perception of their pain level.
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