A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to an adult client.
The client asks the nurse if the medication can be given 2 hr earlier.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
“I can adjust the time and schedule for when it’s convenient for you.”.
“I can start the medication 30 minutes earlier.”.
“I have up to 2 hours after the usual schedule time to give you this medication.”.
“I can infuse the medication at a faster rate.”.
None
None
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice b. "I can start the medication 30 minutes earlier."Choice A rationale: This is an inappropriate response, as the nurse should not adjust the time and schedule for the administration of alteplase recombinant, which is a time-sensitive medication used to treat a thrombus in the coronary artery. The administration of this medication must be done within a specific time frame to be effective.Choice B rationale: This is the correct answer. Alteplase recombinant is a thrombolytic medication used to dissolve blood clots in the coronary artery. It is a time-sensitive medication, and it is crucial to administer it as soon as possible to minimize the damage to the heart muscle. Starting the medication 30 minutes earlier is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care, as it can help ensure the medication is administered within the recommended time frame.Choice C rationale: This is an inappropriate response. Alteplase recombinant should be administered within a specific time frame, typically within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of symptoms. Waiting up to 2 hours after the usual schedule time to give the medication would be outside the recommended time frame and could potentially reduce the effectiveness of the treatment.Choice D rationale: This is an inappropriate response. Alteplase recombinant should be infused at a specific rate, as recommended by the manufacturer or healthcare provider. Infusing the medication at a faster rate could increase the risk of adverse effects and should not be included in the plan of care without specific instructions from the healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
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The correct answer is choice c. Contractions.
Choice A rationale:
Epigastric pain is not a common complication following an amniocentesis. It is more often associated with conditions like preeclampsia or gastrointestinal issues.
Choice B rationale:
Hypertension is not directly related to amniocentesis. It is more commonly associated with conditions like preeclampsia or chronic hypertension in pregnancy.
Choice C rationale:
Contractions are a significant complication to monitor for after an amniocentesis, especially at 33 weeks of gestation. The procedure can sometimes induce preterm labor.
Choice D rationale:
Vomiting is not a typical complication following an amniocentesis. It may occur due to other unrelated reasons but is not directly linked to the procedure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.
Choice B reason:
Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.
After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.
Choice C reason:
Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.
Choice D reason:
Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.
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