A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to an adult client. The client asks the nurse if the medication can be given 2 hr earlier. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
“I can adjust the time and schedule for when it’s convenient for you.”.
“I can start the medication 30 minutes earlier.”.
“I have up to 2 hours after the usual schedule time to give you this medication.”.
“I can infuse the medication at a faster rate.”.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice b. “I can start the medication 30 minutes earlier.”.
Choice A rationale:
Adjusting the time and schedule for convenience is not appropriate for medications like vancomycin, which require precise timing to maintain therapeutic levels and avoid resistance.
Choice B rationale:
Starting the medication 30 minutes earlier is a reasonable adjustment that maintains the medication’s effectiveness and safety.
Choice C rationale:
Administering the medication up to 2 hours after the usual schedule time is incorrect because it could lead to subtherapeutic levels and reduced effectiveness.
Choice D rationale:
Infusing the medication at a faster rate is unsafe as it increases the risk of adverse reactions, such as "red man syndrome".
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
Explanation
Answer is…
The following provider prescriptions are anticipated or contraindicated for the client:.
- Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Anticipated. This prescription is anticipated because the client may have oliguria or anuria due to dehydration, hypovolemia, or renal impairment caused by pancreatitis. A urinary catheter can help monitor the urine output and fluid status of the client.
- Insert a nasogastric tube and maintain low intermittent suction. Anticipated. This prescription is anticipated because the client may have nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension due to pancreatitis. A nasogastric tube can help decompress the stomach, reduce pancreatic stimulation, and prevent aspiration.
- Administer lactated Ringer’s 1 L via IV bolus. Anticipated. This prescription is anticipated because the client may have hypovolemia, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances due to pancreatitis. Lactated Ringer’s solution can help restore fluid and electrolyte balance, improve tissue perfusion, and prevent shock.
- Administer famotidine 20 mg via intermittent IV infusion twice daily. Anticipated. This prescription is anticipated because the client may have gastric hypersecretion and peptic ulcer disease due to pancreatitis. Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist that can help reduce gastric acid production, protect the gastric mucosa, and promote healing of ulcers.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A vertebroplasty is a procedure that injects cement into a fractured vertebra to help relieve pain and stabilize the spine. The recovery time for this procedure is usually short and the complications are rare.
Therefore, this client is most likely to be stable and ready for early discharge.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) needs close monitoring of their blood levels and clotting factors. Heparin is a blood thinner that prevents the clots from getting bigger or breaking loose and traveling to the lungs, which can cause a life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE).
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy needs to be isolated in a special room to prevent exposure of others to radiation. A sealed implant is a smallholder that contains a radioactive source that is placed inside or near the tumor to deliver high doses of radiation. This type of internal radiation therapy, also called brachytherapy, can last from several minutes to several days, depending on the type and dose of the radioactive source.
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min has signs of respiratory distress and possible hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood).
COP
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