A nurse is preparing to administer vaccines to a 1-year-old child. Which of the following vaccines should the nurse give? (Select two)
Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
Rotavirus (RV)
Human papillomavirus (HPV4)
Varicella (VAR)
Diphtheria, tetanus and acellular pertussis (DTaP)
Correct Answer : A,D
The correct answer is a. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) and d. Varicella (VAR).
Choice A reason:
Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR): The MMR vaccine is recommended for children at 12-15 months of age. It protects against three serious diseases: measles, mumps, and rubella. The first dose is typically given at 12-15 months, with a second dose at 4-6 years. Measles can cause severe complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Mumps can lead to meningitis and hearing loss, while rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome in pregnant women. Administering the MMR vaccine at the recommended age ensures that the child is protected from these potentially severe diseases.
Choice B reason:
Rotavirus (RV): This vaccine is given to infants at 2, 4, and possibly 6 months of age. It is not typically administered to a 1-year-old child as the series should be completed by 8 months. Rotavirus is a leading cause of severe diarrhea and dehydration in infants and young children. The vaccine is given orally and is highly effective in preventing rotavirus gastroenteritis. However, since the vaccine series is completed by 8 months, it is not appropriate for a 1-year-old child.
Choice C reason:
Human papillomavirus (HPV4): The HPV vaccine is recommended starting at 11-12 years of age. It is not suitable for a 1-year-old child. HPV is a common virus that can lead to certain types of cancers, including cervical cancer. The vaccine is most effective when given before exposure to HPV, which is why it is recommended for preteens. Administering the HPV vaccine to a 1-year-old would not be appropriate as it is not within the recommended age range.
Choice D reason:
Varicella (VAR): The VAR vaccine is recommended for children at 12-15 months of age to protect against chickenpox. A second dose is given at 4-6 years. Chickenpox can cause an itchy rash, fever, and tiredness. In some cases, it can lead to severe skin infections, pneumonia, and encephalitis. Vaccinating at the recommended age ensures that the child is protected from these complications. The first dose at 12-15 months is crucial for building immunity against the varicella virus.
Choice E reason:
Diphtheria, tetanus and acellular pertussis (DTaP): The DTaP vaccine is given in a series of five doses at 2, 4, 6, 15-18 months, and 4-6 years. The 4th dose is given at 15-18 months, not at 1 year. DTaP protects against three serious diseases: diphtheria, which can cause breathing problems and heart failure; tetanus, which causes painful muscle stiffness; and pertussis (whooping cough), which can lead to severe coughing spells and pneumonia. The timing of the doses is crucial for ensuring effective immunity, and the 1-year mark is not one of the recommended times for the DTaP vaccine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: Contact precautions are not necessary for a child who has mumps, as mumps is not transmitted by direct or indirect contact with the infected person or their environment. Contact precautions are used for infections that are spread by contact with skin, wounds, body fluids, or contaminated surfaces.
Choice B: Standard precautions are always used for any patient care, regardless of their diagnosis or infection status. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (PPE), safe injection practices, and proper disposal of waste and sharps. However, standard precautions alone are not sufficient for a child who has mumps, as mumps are transmitted by respiratory droplets.
Choice C: Airborne precautions are not necessary for a child who has mumps, as mumps are not transmitted by small particles that remain suspended in the air and can be inhaled by others. Airborne precautions are used for infections that are spread by airborne transmission, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox.
Choice D: Droplet precautions are required for a child who has mumps, as mumps are transmitted by large respiratory droplets that are expelled when the infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Droplet precautions include wearing a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the patient, placing the patient in a private room or cohorts with other patients with the same infection, and limiting visitors and staff who are susceptible to the infection.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Oliguria is a condition of reduced urine output, which can indicate dehydration, kidney failure, or urinary tract obstruction. It is not associated with a CNS infection, which affects the brain and spinal cord.
Choice B: A negative Brudzinski sign is a normal finding that indicates no meningeal irritation. It is elicited by flexing the neck of a supine patient and observing no involuntary flexion of the hips and knees. A positive Brudzinski sign, on the other hand, is a sign of meningitis, which is a type of CNS infection.
Choice C: A bulging fontanel is an abnormal finding that indicates increased intracranial pressure, which can be caused by a CNS infection, such as meningitis or encephalitis. A fontanel is a soft spot on the skull of an infant that allows for brain growth and development.
Choice D: Jaundice is a condition of yellowing of the skin and eyes, which can indicate liver disease, hemolytic anemia, or neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. It is not associated with a CNS infection, which affects the brain and spinal cord.
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