A nurse is preparing to administer the initial dose of penicillin G IM to a client. The nurse should monitor for which of the following as an indication of an allergic reaction following the injection?
Pallor
Dyspepsia
Bradycardia
Urticaria
The Correct Answer is D
A. Pallor:
Incorrect Explanation: While pallor (pale skin) can be a sign of an allergic reaction, it is not a specific indication of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Explanation: Pallor can occur for various reasons, including shock or vasovagal responses, and it is not unique to allergic reactions.
B. Dyspepsia:
Incorrect Explanation: Dyspepsia (indigestion or upset stomach) is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction.
Explanation: Allergic reactions are more commonly associated with skin, respiratory, and cardiovascular symptoms, rather than gastrointestinal symptoms like dyspepsia.
C. Bradycardia:
Incorrect Explanation: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not a typical indicator of an allergic reaction.
Explanation: Allergic reactions generally do not directly cause bradycardia. Rapid heart rate (tachycardia) can be a symptom of an allergic reaction in some cases.
D. Urticaria:
Correct Answer: Urticaria (hives) is a common and characteristic sign of an allergic reaction, including to penicillin.
Explanation: Urticaria presents as raised, itchy, and often red welts on the skin. It is a classic manifestation of an allergic response and can occur rapidly after exposure to an allergen, including medications like penicillin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administer the medication into the client's muscles.
Explanation: This is incorrect because enoxaparin is usually administered subcutaneously, not into the muscle.
B. Apply firm pressure to the injection site following administration.
Explanation: This is incorrect because while applying gentle pressure after a subcutaneous injection is common practice, it is not specific to enoxaparin.
C. Insert the syringe needle halfway into the client's skin.
Explanation: This is incorrect because the needle should be inserted fully into the subcutaneous tissue, not just halfway, for proper administration of enoxaparin.
D. Expel the air bubble from the syringe prior to injection.
Explanation: This is the correct action. Expelling air bubbles from the syringe prior to injection helps ensure accurate dosing and prevents air from being injected into the subcutaneous tissue.
When administering enoxaparin (low molecular weight heparin) subcutaneously, it's important to expel any air bubbles from the syringe before injection. Air bubbles can cause discomfort and inaccuracies in dosage. The nurse should gently tap the syringe to move air bubbles to the top and then push the plunger slightly to expel the air. The other options are not correct procedures for administering enoxaparin. It is typically injected into the subcutaneous tissue, not a muscle, and firm pressure is not typically applied after administration. The needle is fully inserted into the skin, not halfway.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Osteoporosis. A nurse is consulting a formulary about a client's new prescription for raloxifene. The medication raloxifene is used to treat osteoporosis. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that helps to prevent and treat bone loss in postmenopausal women. It works by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue, helping to prevent bone breakdown and maintain bone density.
B. Urinary tract infection: UTIs are typically treated with antibiotics.
C. Hypothyroidism: Hypothyroidism is treated with thyroid hormone replacement.
D. Deep-vein thrombosis: DVT is typically treated with anticoagulant medications like heparin and warfarin.
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