A nurse is preparing to administer levofloxacin 750 mg via intermittent IV infusion over 90 min to a client. Available is levofloxacin 750 mg/150 mL. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV pump to administer?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["100"]
The correct answer is 100 mL/hr. To calculate this, use the formula: rate (mL/hr) = volume (mL) / time (hr).
Therefores: rate = 150 mL / 1.5 hr = 100 mL/hr.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A WBC count of 20,000/mm3 indicates infection and inflammation, which is expected in osteomyelitis. Long-term IV antibiotic therapy is a common treatment for osteomyelitis and may require a referral to avoid peripherl thrombophlebitis. Furosemide is a diuretic that may be prescribed for clients who have fluid retention or hypertension, which are not related to osteomyelitis. A HbA1c of 6% indicates good glycemic control for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which can help prevent complications and infections.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should measure the client's blood pressure first, as sinus bradycardia can cause hypotension and decreased perfusion to vital organs. The nurse should assess the client's hemodynamic status and symptoms before initiating any interventions that may affect their heart rate or rhythm. The other options may be appropriate depending on the severity of the bradycardia and its underlying cause, but they are not the first priority.
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