A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. Available is 500 mg ampicillin in 50 mL dextrose 5% in water (DSW). The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["100"]
To calculate the infusion rate, use the formula:
mL/hr = (volume of solution in mL / time of infusion in hr) x 60 min/hr
Plug in the given values:
mL/hr = (50 mL / 0.5 hr) x 60 min/hr
Simplify and solve:
mL/hr = 100 x 60 min/hr
mL/hr = 100 mL/hr
Round to the nearest whole number and add a leading zero if needed:
mL/hr = 100 mL/hr

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Administering a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA), such as albuterol, is the priority intervention for the nurse to take, as it provides rapid bronchodilation and relieves bronchospasm, which are the main features of status asthmaticus. Status asthmaticus is a severe and life-threatening asthma attack that does not respond to usual treatment and requires immediate medical attention.
a) Determining the cause of the acute exacerbation is important, but not the priority intervention for the nurse to take. The cause may be an allergen, infection, stress, or exercise, but it does not affect the immediate management of status asthmaticus. The nurse should focus on restoring airway patency and oxygenation first, and then identify and avoid triggers later.
b) Obtaining a peak flow reading is important, but not the priority intervention for the nurse to take. The peak flow reading measures the maximum expiratory flow rate and indicates the degree of airway obstruction. However, it may not be feasible or accurate in a child who is experiencing status asthmaticus, as they may be too dyspneic or agitated to perform the test. The nurse should rely on other signs of respiratory distress, such as wheezes, retractions, cyanosis, or pulse oximetry.
c) Administering an inhaled glucocorticoid is important, but not the priority intervention for the nurse to take. Glucocorticoids, such as fluticasone or budesonide, reduce inflammation and mucus production in the airways, but they have a delayed onset of action and are not effective for acute asthma attacks. They are used for long-term control and prevention of asthma symptoms.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
White coating in the mouth, also known as oral candidiasis or thrush, is a serious adverse effect of fluticasone/salmeterol, which is a combination of an inhaled corticosteroid and a long-acting beta2 agonist. It is caused by fungal infection of the oral cavity due to suppression of the normal flora by the corticosteroid component. The client should report this symptom to the provider, as it may require antifungal treatment and discontinuation of the medication.
a) Dry oral mucous membranes is a common and mild adverse effect of fluticasone/salmeterol, which can be relieved by drinking water, chewing sugarless gum, or using artificial saliva. It does not require reporting to the provider or stopping the medication.
c) Sedation is not an adverse effect of fluticasone/salmeterol, but it may be caused by other medications, such as antihistamines, opioids, or benzodiazepines. The client should avoid driving or operating machinery if sedated and consult with the provider about possible drug interactions.
d) Increased appetite is not an adverse effect of fluticasone/salmeterol, but it may be caused by other factors, such as stress, boredom, or hormonal changes. The client should maintain a balanced diet and exercise regularly to prevent weight gain and promote health.

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