A nurse is preparing to administer 50 mcg of fentanyl to a client who is in labor. The amount available is 100 mcg per 2 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["1"]
Calculation:
- Identify the ordered dose and available concentration
Ordered Dose: 50 mcg
Available Concentration: 100 mcg/2 mL
- Calculate the volume to administer
Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose ÷ Concentration) × Volume of Concentration
Volume to administer = (50 ÷ 100) × 2
Volume to administer = 0.5 × 2
Volume to administer = 1 mL
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices
• Seizures: The client presents with severe hypertension (BP 162/112 mm Hg and 166/110 mm Hg), +3 pitting edema, and proteinuria (3+), which are classic indicators of severe preeclampsia. These factors place the client at high risk for eclampsia, which manifests as seizures during pregnancy. Close monitoring and early intervention are critical to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
• Placental abruption: Severe hypertension and preeclampsia increase the risk of placental abruption, a condition in which the placenta separates prematurely from the uterine wall. This can compromise fetal oxygenation and lead to significant maternal bleeding. The client’s elevated blood pressure, edema, and decreased fetal movement indicate a higher likelihood of this obstetric emergency.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Heart failure: Although hypertension and fluid shifts in preeclampsia can strain the heart, there is no current evidence of pulmonary edema, dyspnea, or heart failure symptoms in this client. Heart failure is a less immediate risk compared with seizures and placental abruption in the context of severe preeclampsia.
• Hypoglycemia: There is no indication of low blood glucose in the client; laboratory results show glucose within normal limits (85 mg/dL). Hypoglycemia is not a typical complication of preeclampsia and is therefore not an immediate concern in this scenario.
• Cervical insufficiency: Cervical insufficiency typically presents earlier in gestation with painless dilation and risk of preterm birth, rather than in a 31-week client with hypertensive complications. The client’s symptoms of headache, edema, and proteinuria do not indicate cervical insufficiency.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Discuss the incident with the health care worker: While addressing the suspected impairment with the worker is important, immediate removal from the work environment takes priority to ensure patient safety and prevent potential harm. Confrontation can follow after securing a safe environment.
B. Document the findings of the incident: Documentation is essential for legal and professional accountability, but it is secondary to protecting patients from immediate risk. Recording observations does not prevent ongoing exposure to unsafe practice.
C. Remove the health care worker from the work environment: The first priority is ensuring patient safety. Suspected chemical impairment can impair judgment, coordination, and response time, creating a high risk for errors or accidents. Immediate removal prevents potential harm to clients and coworkers.
D. Place the health care worker on probation: Probation is a disciplinary measure that may follow an investigation, but it is not the first step. Immediate action must focus on safety, and probation does not address the urgent risk posed by active impairment.
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