A nurse is preparing regular and NPH insulin in the same syringe for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Shake both insulin vials for 2 min before withdrawing the doses.
Administer the mixture within 5 min of preparing it.
Withdraw the NPH insulin before the regular insulin.
Inject air into the regular insulin vial before injecting air into the NPH vial.
None
None
The Correct Answer is B
A. Shaking insulin vials can cause bubbles and denature the insulin, especially NPH, which should be gently rolled between the hands to mix. Vigorous shaking can reduce effectiveness and increase the risk of inaccurate dosing.
B. Once regular and NPH insulin are drawn into the same syringe, the mixture should be administered promptly, ideally within 5 minutes, to maintain potency and prevent clumping. Delays can alter absorption and efficacy of the insulin.
C. The correct technique is to withdraw regular insulin first and then NPH, not the other way around. Drawing NPH first could contaminate the regular insulin vial with NPH, affecting rapid-acting insulin activity.
D. Air should be injected into each vial to equalize pressure before withdrawing the insulin, but the sequence should be air into NPH first, then air into regular insulin, to avoid contamination. Incorrect sequencing can introduce NPH into the regular insulin vial.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A child with cystic fibrosis and difficulty clearing secretions is the priority because airway clearance is critical in cystic fibrosis. Mucus buildup can lead to respiratory distress and infection, requiring immediate intervention.
B. A child with an atrial septal defect and a heart rate of 120/min is not the priority because a heart rate of 120/min is within the expected range for a 3-year-old and does not indicate immediate distress.
C. A child with type 1 diabetes and a blood sugar of 150 mg/dL is not the priority because this blood glucose level is slightly elevated but not critical.
D. A child with diarrhea and abdominal pain requires assessment, but dehydration or electrolyte imbalance develops over time. Airway issues take priority over gastrointestinal symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Measure and record the client's leg circumferences daily. This is correct because measuring leg circumference helps assess for changes in swelling and monitor the progression or improvement of deep-vein thrombosis.
B. Place the client with their knees in a sharply flexed position. This is incorrect because sharply flexing the knees can impede blood flow and increase the risk of clot formation. The client should be encouraged to keep their legs extended and slightly elevated.
C. Monitor the client's RBCs every 4 hr. This is incorrect because deep-vein thrombosis does not typically require frequent RBC monitoring. Instead, coagulation studies such as PT, aPTT, and INR are more relevant.
D. Administer warfarin PO daily. This is incorrect because warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. Instead, low-molecular-weight heparin or unfractionated heparin is the preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy.
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