A nurse is planning to administer the first dose of iron dextran intermittent IV bolus for a client who has iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to take?
Give a 25-mg test dose of the medication.
Flush the IV site with 3 mL of heparin following infusion.
Instruct the client to remain supine for 10 min after administration.
Dilute the medication in sterile water for injection.
The Correct Answer is D
A) Drowsiness: While drowsiness can be a sign of elevated magnesium levels, it is less critical compared to more immediate symptoms like bradycardia. Monitoring and managing drowsiness is important, but bradycardia poses a more immediate risk of severe cardiovascular issues.
B) Diminished patellar reflexes: Diminished reflexes can indicate elevated magnesium levels, but this finding is less urgent compared to symptoms directly affecting heart function. It still needs to be reported but is not the highest priority.
C) Generalized muscle weakness: Muscle weakness is another common sign of high magnesium levels, reflecting the effect of magnesium on neuromuscular function. However, it is less critical compared to bradycardia, which can be life-threatening.
D) Bradycardia: Elevated magnesium levels can significantly impact cardiac function, leading to bradycardia. Bradycardia can be life-threatening, as it may result in decreased cardiac output and potential for severe complications. Therefore, this finding requires immediate attention and should be reported to the provider first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Administering risperidone 25 mg IM is not typically appropriate for treating a panic attack. Risperidone is an antipsychotic medication used for treating conditions like schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not for the immediate management of panic attacks. Immediate pharmacological intervention is not generally the first line of treatment in acute panic attacks unless the client has a specific medication prescribed for such episodes.
B) Teaching the client how to perform guided imagery can be beneficial for long-term anxiety management but is not the most effective intervention during an acute panic attack. During a panic attack, the client's ability to focus and learn new techniques may be impaired, making it less effective in the immediate situation.
C) Staying with the client until the panic attack subsides is the most appropriate action. Presence and reassurance from the nurse can help the client feel safer and more grounded. This approach provides emotional support and can help reduce the severity and duration of the panic attack by addressing the client's immediate need for security and stability.
D) Encouraging the client to take quick, shallow breaths can exacerbate hyperventilation and increase anxiety during a panic attack. Instead, slow, deep breathing techniques are recommended to help calm the client's physiological response and reduce the intensity of the panic attack.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Painful vesicles along a dermatome:
This finding is typically associated with herpes zoster (shingles), not scabies. Shingles causes painful vesicles that follow the path of a nerve and are confined to one side of the body, which does not align with the presentation of scabies.
B) Acneiform nodules on the face:
Acneiform nodules are related to conditions such as acne vulgaris, not scabies. Scabies does not typically present with acne-like lesions on the face but rather with intense itching and a specific rash.
C) Wheals surrounding raised bite marks:
Wheals and bite marks are more indicative of insect bites or conditions like urticaria (hives). Scabies is caused by mites that burrow under the skin, leading to a different type of rash.
D) Raised, linear burrows:
Raised, linear burrows are characteristic of scabies. These burrows are caused by the female mite as it tunnels just under the skin to lay eggs, resulting in a distinctive rash and intense itching, especially at night.
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