A nurse is planning to administer ceftriaxone IM to an adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Administer the medication using a 5/8-inch needle.

Administer the medication using a Z-track technique.

Administer the medication in the deltoid muscle.

Administer the medication at a 45° angle.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Administer the medication using a 5/8-inch needle:
Ceftriaxone is typically administered using a longer needle to ensure proper injection into the muscle. A 5/8-inch needle is more suitable for subcutaneous injections rather than intramuscular (IM) injections.

B) Administer the medication using a Z-track technique:
The Z-track technique is appropriate for IM injections of medications like ceftriaxone, which can be irritating to tissues. This technique helps prevent the medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue and minimizes discomfort by creating a zigzag path in the muscle.

C) Administer the medication in the deltoid muscle:
Ceftriaxone is generally administered in larger muscle groups, such as the vastus lateralis or gluteus muscle, rather than the deltoid. The deltoid is more commonly used for vaccines or smaller volume injections.

D) Administer the medication at a 45° angle:
For IM injections, the needle should be inserted at a 90° angle to the skin. A 45° angle is more appropriate for subcutaneous injections.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Explain the purpose for the medications:
While explaining the purpose of the medications is important, it is crucial first to understand the reason behind the client's refusal. This can help tailor the explanation to address specific concerns or misconceptions.

B) Ask the client why he is refusing to take the medications:
Asking the client about their reasons for refusing the medications is a critical first step. This approach allows the nurse to address any concerns, educate the client, and potentially find alternative solutions or treatments that the client may be more willing to accept.

C) Tell the client the physician wants him to take the medications:
Simply telling the client that the physician wants them to take the medications does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal. It is important to engage with the client to understand their perspective and address any concerns they might have.

D) Document that the client refuses the medications:
Documentation of the refusal is necessary for legal and medical records, but it should not be the initial action. Understanding the client’s reasons for refusal and attempting to address those reasons should be prioritized before documenting the refusal.

A. Duloxetine B. Furosemide C. Telmisartan D. Atorvastatin E. Clopidogrel

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

A) Duloxetine: Duloxetine, an SNRI (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor), is commonly used for depression and chronic pain. It can cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in older adults, due to its effects on norepinephrine, which can lead to blood pressure fluctuations upon standing.

B) Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urine output, leading to a decrease in blood volume. This reduction in blood volume can result in orthostatic hypotension, particularly when the client changes positions quickly, such as moving from lying down to standing.

C) Telmisartan: Telisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) used to treat hypertension. It can cause vasodilation and a reduction in blood pressure, which may lead to orthostatic hypotension, especially in older adults who are more sensitive to blood pressure changes.

D) Atorvastatin: Atorvastatin, a statin used to lower cholesterol, does not typically cause orthostatic hypotension. Its primary action is on lipid levels rather than blood pressure, making it less likely to contribute to this condition.

E) Clopidogrel: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that reduces the risk of blood clots. It does not generally affect blood pressure or cause orthostatic hypotension, as its mechanism of action is related to inhibiting platelet aggregation rather than influencing vascular tone or fluid balance.

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A nurse is planning to administer ceftriaxone IM to an adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

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