A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Methadone
Chlordiazepoxide
Varenicline
Buprenorphine
The Correct Answer is B
A. Methadone: Methadone is an opioid agonist used for opioid dependence and pain management. It does not treat the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and is not indicated in this scenario.
B. Chlordiazepoxide: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal. It reduces agitation, tremors, and the risk of seizures by enhancing GABAergic activity in the central nervous system.
C. Varenicline: Varenicline is used to aid smoking cessation by acting on nicotinic receptors. It does not alleviate alcohol withdrawal symptoms and is not part of standard alcohol withdrawal management.
D. Buprenorphine: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist used for opioid use disorder. It is not effective in treating alcohol withdrawal and does not address the associated neurological excitability or risk of seizures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "The pump will not deliver any medication during the lockout period.": The lockout interval is a safety feature that prevents overdose by ensuring the pump cannot deliver additional doses until a set time has passed. Understanding this helps the client use the PCA safely.
B. "I should wait to push the pain button until the pain becomes severe.": PCA is most effective when the client administers medication at the onset of pain rather than waiting for it to become severe, as early administration prevents pain from escalating.
C. "My partner can push the pain button for me if I fall asleep.": Only the client should operate the PCA pump to prevent accidental overdose. Allowing someone else to push the button violates safety protocols.
D. "I will be asked to describe and rate my pain every 8 hours.": Pain assessment should be frequent, especially in the first 24 hours of PCA use, to adjust therapy and monitor effectiveness. An 8-hour interval may not provide timely information to manage pain effectively.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. History of gastrointestinal bleeding: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, increasing the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration. A history of GI bleeding is a contraindication due to the heightened risk of serious complications.
B. Liver impairment: While caution is warranted, mild to moderate liver impairment is not an absolute contraindication. Liver function should be monitored, but it does not automatically prevent ketorolac use.
C. Allergy to codeine: Ketorolac is not an opioid and does not contain codeine. An allergy to codeine does not contraindicate its administration.
D. History of glaucoma: Ketorolac does not typically affect intraocular pressure or exacerbate glaucoma. It is not contraindicated in clients with this condition.
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