A nurse is performing a complete physical examination on a patient. After examining the patient with the Snellen chart, the nurse documented distance vision in both eyes 20/40. The patient asks the nurse what 20/40 means:

20 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 40 represents the distance a normal eye read the chart.

20 represents the distance a normal eye can read and 40 represents the distance your eye read the chart.

20 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 40 represents the distance your eye read the chart.

40 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 20 represents the distance a normal eye read the chart.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. 20 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 40 represents the distance a normal eye reads the chart:

This is correct. The first number (20) represents the distance in feet the patient is from the Snellen chart. The second number (40) indicates the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, 20/40 means that what the patient can read at 20 feet, a person with normal vision can read at 40 feet.

B. 20 represents the distance a normal eye can read and 40 represents the distance your eye reads the chart:

This is incorrect. The first number should represent the distance the patient is from the chart, not the normal eye's reading distance.

C. 20 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 40 represents the distance your eye reads the chart:

This is incorrect. While the first number is correct (the distance from the chart), the second number should represent the distance a person with normal vision can read the same line, not the patient's distance.

D. 40 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 20 represents the distance a normal eye reads the chart:

This is incorrect. The standard for visual acuity measurements is that the first number represents the testing distance (usually 20 feet), and the second number represents the distance at which a normal eye can read the line.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Eye turning inward:

Esotropia is a condition where one or both eyes turn inward, leading to misalignment. This inward turning can cause double vision, depth perception issues, and sometimes amblyopia (lazy eye) if not treated early. This is the primary characteristic that defines esotropia.

B) Eye malalignment:

While eye malalignment is a general term that can describe conditions like esotropia, exotropia, or hypertropia, it does not specify the direction of the misalignment. Esotropia specifically refers to inward turning of the eye, which is a more precise description of the condition.

C) Eye oscillating:

Eye oscillation refers to nystagmus, which is a condition characterized by repetitive, uncontrolled movements of the eyes, often resulting in reduced vision. Nystagmus is not related to esotropia, which involves inward turning rather than oscillation.

D) Eye turning outward:

Eye turning outward is known as exotropia, which is the opposite of esotropia. Exotropia involves the eyes turning away from the nose, whereas esotropia involves the eyes turning towards the nose. These are distinct conditions with different clinical presentations.

A. Stage I B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. Stage II

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Stage I: Stage I pressure ulcers are characterized by non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. There is no break in the skin, but it may appear red and warm to the touch. It is considered the mildest form of pressure injury, signaling the beginning of potential skin damage.

B) Stage III: Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss. This means that the damage extends through the dermis into the subcutaneous tissue. There may be visible fat, but bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed. These ulcers are deeper and more serious than the scenario described.

C) Stage IV: Stage IV pressure ulcers are the most severe and involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. The presence of slough or eschar may be present on some parts of the wound bed, and these ulcers are deep, often with extensive damage and infection.

D) Stage II: Stage II pressure ulcers are characterized by partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and/or dermis. They present as shallow, open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. They may also appear as intact or open/ruptured serum-filled blisters, which matches the description given in the scenario. This stage represents a more significant injury than Stage I but does not extend into the deeper layers of skin and tissue as in Stage III and IV.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is performing a complete physical examination on a patient. After examining the patient with the Snellen chart, the nurse documented distance vision in both eyes 20/40. The patient asks the nurse what 20/40 means:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess in a client with esotropia?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse notes a break in the skin, which appears blister-like, it looks superficial with loss up to the dermis layer. The nurse would interpret this finding as indicating which stage of pressure ulcer.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is assessing for cyanosis in a client who has dark skin. Which of the following sites should the nurse examine to identify cyanosis in this client?

The nurse is doing a focus assessment on a 25-year-old college student who presented to the clinic secondary to fever and lethargy. When recording the findings of the lymph glands, a nurse should note all except:

A nurse measures a patient height and weight and calculate his BMI. Patient BMI is 37. Classify according to this BMI results?

During assessment, the nurse would expect which part of the body to indicate central cyanosis in a client with a severe asthma attack?

A nurse is instructing a group of clients regarding nutrition. Which of the following is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids that the nurse should include in the teaching?

A 75-year-old male who is a chronic alcoholic present to the medical office for his annual wellness visit. How would describe the findings found in photo?

What data collected during an integumentary assessment should cause the nurse to be concerned that a client is at risk for the development of skin cancer? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse assesses an older adult client who lives alone and is unable to drive a vehicle. Which of the following assessment areas of the nutritional history will most likely impact the client's nutritional status?