A nurse is observing an assistive personnel (AP) take a client's tympanic temperature.
Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication that the AP understands how to perform the procedure?
The AP inserts the probe with a straight, forward motion.
The AP points the probe posteriorly.
The AP pulls the pinna up and back.
The AP positions the client facing her.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is: c. The AP pulls the pinna up and back.
Choice A reason: The AP inserting the probe with a straight, forward motion is not the correct technique for tympanic temperature measurement. The ear canal does not run straight forward into the head; instead, it curves slightly. Inserting the probe straight forward could potentially damage the ear canal or eardrum and would not provide an accurate temperature reading.
Choice B reason: Pointing the probe posteriorly is also incorrect. The tympanic membrane is located at the end of the ear canal, and the probe should be directed towards it. However, the probe should be angled slightly downward and toward the jawline, not straight back, to align with the ear canal and ensure an accurate reading.
Choice C reason: Pulling the pinna up and back is the correct method for adults and children over one year old. This action straightens the ear canal, allowing the thermometer’s sensor to get a clear path to the tympanic membrane, which is necessary for an accurate temperature reading. For infants, the correct method is to pull the earlobe straight back.
Choice D reason: The AP positioning the client facing her does not directly relate to the technique of measuring tympanic temperature. While it may be necessary for the AP to see the client’s ear, it is not an indication of understanding the correct procedure for tympanic temperature measurement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Pedal pulses are a measure of peripheral circulation. A 2+ rating is considered normal, indicating a brisk, expected response. There’s no change in the client’s pedal pulses from Day 1 to Day 5, so this doesn’t require immediate follow-up.
Choice B rationale:
Oxygen saturation is not mentioned in the Nurses’ Notes, so we cannot provide a rationale for this choice.
Choice C rationale:
Breath sounds are an important indicator of respiratory health. The client’s breath sounds are clear and present throughout on both Day 1 and Day 5, which is normal and doesn’t require immediate follow-up.
Choice D rationale:
Respiratory rate is not mentioned in the Nurses’ Notes, but any significant change in respiratory rate could indicate a problem such as infection or pain, and would require immediate follow-up.
Choice E rationale:
The abdominal dressing shows a large amount of serosanguinous drainage on Day 5, compared to a small amount on Day 1. This could indicate a complication such as infection or dehiscence (separation of the wound), especially since the client reported feeling something “popped” at the incision site after coughing. This requires immediate follow-up.
Choice F rationale:
Heart rate is not mentioned in the Nurses’ Notes, but any significant change in heart rate could indicate a systemic response to factors such as pain or infection, and would require immediate follow-up. In summary, while pedal pulses and breath sounds remain normal, the change in the abdominal dressing and potential changes in respiratory rate and heart rate (though not documented here) should be addressed immediately to ensure the client’s health and recovery.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor in a pregnant woman. A significant increase in blood pressure could indicate a condition called preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby.
Choice B rationale:
While the respiratory rate is an important vital sign, it does not directly indicate a prenatal complication in this context. Normal respiratory rates for an adult range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Changes could indicate a respiratory problem but not specifically a prenatal complication.
Choice C rationale:
Gravida/parity is a standard way to denote a woman's reproductive history but does not indicate a prenatal complication. Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, while parity refers to the number of pregnancies carried past 20 weeks, regardless of whether they were born alive or stillborn.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fetal activity can be a sign of distress in the fetus. It could indicate complications such as poor oxygenation or other conditions that could affect the health of the baby. It's important for pregnant women to monitor their baby's movements daily after 28 weeks.
Choice E rationale:
A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman could be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when accompanied by other symptoms such as high blood pressure and changes in vision. This should be evaluated immediately.
Choice F rationale:
Urine ketones are usually checked in pregnant women who have symptoms of a condition called ketoacidosis, which is often seen in women with gestational diabetes. However, this condition is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice G rationale:
Protein in the urine is another potential sign of preeclampsia. It's caused by kidney problems resulting from the high blood pressure. In normal conditions, protein should not be present in urine or should be very low.
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