A nurse is monitoring a client who received epinephrine for angioedema after a first dose of losartan. Which of the following data indicates a therapeutic response to the epinephrine?
The client tolerates a second dose of medication with no greater than 1 peripheral edema.
Respirations are unlabored.
Client reports decreased groin pain of 3 on a 1 to 10 scale.
The client's blood pressure when arising from resting position is at premedication levels.
The Correct Answer is B
A) The client tolerates a second dose of medication with no greater than 1 peripheral edema:
This does not directly indicate a therapeutic response to epinephrine for angioedema. Angioedema primarily involves swelling of deeper layers of the skin, often around the eyes and lips, and sometimes the throat, which can cause breathing difficulties. Tolerating a second dose of medication with minimal peripheral edema does not specifically address the acute respiratory effects of angioedema.
B) Respirations are unlabored:
This is the correct answer. Angioedema can cause swelling in the airways, leading to difficulty breathing. Epinephrine is used to reduce this swelling and improve airway patency. Unlabored respirations indicate that the airway is not obstructed, which means the epinephrine has successfully alleviated the swelling causing the angioedema.
C) Client reports decreased groin pain of 3 on a 1 to 10 scale:
Decreased groin pain is not relevant to the treatment of angioedema with epinephrine. Pain relief in the groin area does not indicate a therapeutic response to epinephrine, which is primarily used to address airway and anaphylactic symptoms.
D) The client's blood pressure when arising from resting position is at premedication levels:
While epinephrine can affect blood pressure, the main concern with angioedema is airway obstruction rather than blood pressure control. Normalizing blood pressure does not specifically indicate that the epinephrine has successfully treated the angioedema and improved the client's respiratory status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. You should advance your weak leg forward to the cane, then move your strong leg:
Advancing the weak leg first and then the strong leg is not the proper technique for using a cane. The correct method is to hold the cane on the stronger side and move the cane and the weaker leg forward together, followed by the stronger leg.
B. You should advance the cane 12 to 14 inches before taking a step:
Advancing the cane 12 to 14 inches is too far. The cane should be advanced approximately 6 to 10 inches to maintain balance and support.
C. The cane’s height should be the same as the distance from the floor to the crest of your hip bone:
The correct height for a cane is when the handle is at the level of the wrist when the user is standing with the arm hanging naturally at their side. This typically corresponds to the distance from the floor to the greater trochanter (hip bone). This ensures the cane provides the right amount of support and reduces the risk of strain or imbalance.
D. You should hold the cane in your weak hand when ambulating:
The cane should be held in the stronger hand, not the weak hand. This allows the cane to provide support to the weaker side of the body and helps to balance the weight distribution more effectively.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) 41-year-old with hypernatremia:
Hypernatremia refers to elevated levels of sodium in the blood. While hypernatremia can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, it does not directly correlate with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.
B) 72-year-old with chronic alcoholism:
Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for hypomagnesemia. Alcohol abuse can lead to poor dietary intake of magnesium, increased renal excretion of magnesium, and impaired absorption of magnesium in the gastrointestinal tract, all contributing to magnesium deficiency.
C) 79-year-old with bone cancer:
Bone cancer does not inherently increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. However, depending on the treatment modalities and disease progression, the client may be at risk for other electrolyte imbalances or complications associated with bone cancer.
D) 46-year-old with respiratory acidosis:
Respiratory acidosis refers to an acid-base imbalance characterized by elevated levels of carbon dioxide in the blood due to impaired ventilation. While respiratory acidosis can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly potassium imbalances, it is not directly linked to hypomagnesemia.
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