A nurse is monitoring a client who received epinephrine for angioedema after a first dose of losartan. Which of the following data indicates a therapeutic response to the epinephrine?

The client tolerates a second dose of medication with no greater than 1 peripheral edema.

Respirations are unlabored.

Client reports decreased groin pain of 3 on a 1 to 10 scale.

The client's blood pressure when arising from resting position is at premedication levels.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) The client tolerates a second dose of medication with no greater than 1 peripheral edema:
This does not directly indicate a therapeutic response to epinephrine for angioedema. Angioedema primarily involves swelling of deeper layers of the skin, often around the eyes and lips, and sometimes the throat, which can cause breathing difficulties. Tolerating a second dose of medication with minimal peripheral edema does not specifically address the acute respiratory effects of angioedema.

B) Respirations are unlabored:
This is the correct answer. Angioedema can cause swelling in the airways, leading to difficulty breathing. Epinephrine is used to reduce this swelling and improve airway patency. Unlabored respirations indicate that the airway is not obstructed, which means the epinephrine has successfully alleviated the swelling causing the angioedema.

C) Client reports decreased groin pain of 3 on a 1 to 10 scale:
Decreased groin pain is not relevant to the treatment of angioedema with epinephrine. Pain relief in the groin area does not indicate a therapeutic response to epinephrine, which is primarily used to address airway and anaphylactic symptoms.

D) The client's blood pressure when arising from resting position is at premedication levels:
While epinephrine can affect blood pressure, the main concern with angioedema is airway obstruction rather than blood pressure control. Normalizing blood pressure does not specifically indicate that the epinephrine has successfully treated the angioedema and improved the client's respiratory status.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Pain level:
While assessing pain is important to determine the effectiveness of the pain management, it is not the immediate priority after administering an opioid.

B) Pulse oximetry:
Monitoring oxygen saturation is critical as opioids can depress respiratory function. However, it is indirectly related to the primary effect of the medication on the central nervous system.

C) Blood pressure:
Monitoring blood pressure is important as opioids can cause hypotension, but it is not as critical as monitoring the level of sedation and respiratory status.

D) Level of sedation:
This is the priority because opioids can cause significant sedation and respiratory depression. Assessing the level of sedation helps determine if the client is at risk of further complications like respiratory arrest. Over-sedation can be a precursor to more serious complications, making this assessment crucial.

A. Excessive thirst and urination B. Shakiness and diaphoresis C. Hypertension and crackles D. Fever and chills

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Excessive thirst and urination:
Excessive thirst and urination are symptoms typically associated with hyperglycemia, where there is a high level of glucose in the blood, often related to diabetes. When TPN is stopped suddenly, the concern is more about hypoglycemia due to the abrupt lack of glucose infusion, not hyperglycemia.

B. Shakiness and diaphoresis:
When TPN is suddenly interrupted, the continuous supply of glucose that the patient relies on is abruptly halted. This can lead to a rapid drop in blood sugar levels, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include shakiness, diaphoresis (sweating), confusion, and even loss of consciousness if not promptly addressed. Monitoring for shakiness and diaphoresis is crucial in this scenario to prevent severe hypoglycemia.

C. Hypertension and crackles:
These symptoms are typically indicative of fluid overload or heart failure. While TPN can contribute to fluid overload if not managed properly, the immediate concern with the cessation of TPN is the lack of glucose and potential hypoglycemia, not fluid overload.

D. Fever and chills:
Fever and chills are generally signs of an infection, such as sepsis. While infections can be a complication of TPN due to the intravenous route of administration, they are not directly related to the sudden stopping of TPN. The primary concern when TPN stops unexpectedly is the risk of hypoglycemia due to the cessation of glucose infusion.

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A nurse is monitoring a client who received epinephrine for angioedema after a first dose of losartan. Which of the following data indicates a therapeutic response to the epinephrine?

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