A nurse is leading a grief support group for bereaved clients. Which of the following client statements should the nurse report to the provider as an indication of clinical depression?
"It'll be a long time before I'm happy again."
"I don't know how I could cope if I didn't have my family's support."
"I feel like I'm angry at the whole world right now."
"I don't feel anything but numbness anymore."
The Correct Answer is D
A. This statement reflects a realistic acknowledgment of the grieving process and does not necessarily indicate clinical depression.
B. Expressing dependence on family support is a common coping mechanism during grief and does not necessarily indicate clinical depression.
C. Feelings of anger are common during the grieving process and do not necessarily indicate clinical depression.
D. Feeling numb or anhedonic, the inability to experience pleasure, is a symptom commonly associated with clinical depression and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Encouraging physical activity during the day has been shown to improve mood and reduce symptoms of depression by increasing endorphin levels and promoting a sense of well-being.

B. Identifying and scheduling alternative group activities for the client may be helpful in reducing social isolation and improving mood but should not replace physical activity.
C. Discouraging the client from expressing feelings of anger is not appropriate, as it may suppress emotions and hinder therapeutic communication. Instead, the nurse should encourage the client to express and explore their emotions in a healthy manner.
D. Keeping a bright light on in the client's room at night may disrupt sleep patterns and exacerbate symptoms of depression, as individuals with depression often have disturbances in their sleep-wake cycle.
Correct Answer is ["10"]
Explanation
First, we need to determine how many milligrams (mg) are in each milliliter (mL) of the solution.
The available methylphenidate oral solution has a concentration of 10 mg per 5 mL.
To find out how many milligrams are in 1 mL of the solution, we divide 10 mg by 5 mL: 10 mg / 5 mL = 2 mg/mL
The child's prescription is for 40 mg per day, divided into two doses. So, each dose should contain:
40 mg / 2 doses = 20 mg per dose 2mg=1ml
20mg= 20*1/2= 10ml
Therefore, the nurse should administer 10 mL of methylphenidate oral solution per dose
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
