A nurse is instructing a female client on how to check her basal body temperature to determine if she is ovulating. The nurse should instruct the client to check her temperature at which of the following times?
1 hour following intercourse
Every morning before arising
Before going to bed every night
On days 13 to 17 of her menstrual cycle
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Checking basal body temperature 1 hour following intercourse is not recommended as a method to determine ovulation. Intercourse and physical activity can increase body temperature, which may lead to inaccurate readings. Basal body temperature should be measured after a period of rest, not after physical activity.
Choice B reason:
The basal body temperature method involves measuring the body's at-rest temperature to identify slight changes that occur around the time of ovulation. It is most accurate when taken every morning before getting out of bed, after at least 3 hours of uninterrupted sleep, and before any physical activity, including eating or drinking. A slight increase in basal body temperature typically occurs after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period. This method requires consistency and precise timing to be effective.
Choice C reason:
Measuring basal body temperature before going to bed every night is not an effective way to track ovulation. The body's temperature fluctuates throughout the day due to various factors, including activity levels, meals, and external temperatures. Therefore, nighttime measurements would not provide the consistent, resting temperature needed to accurately detect ovulation.
Choice D reason:
While it is true that ovulation typically occurs around the middle of the menstrual cycle, which for many women is between days 13 to 17, limiting temperature checks to these days only may miss the initial rise in temperature that indicates ovulation. Ovulation can vary from cycle to cycle, and it is important to measure basal body temperature daily to detect the pattern over time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Peanut butter should be eliminated from the diet of a pregnant client with PKU. It is a high-protein food that contains phenylalanine, an amino acid that individuals with PKU cannot metabolize properly¹. The accumulation of phenylalanine can lead to serious health issues for both the mother and the developing fetus, including the risk of intellectual disability in the child.
Choice B Reason:
Potatoes are generally safe for individuals with PKU to consume. They are not high in protein and thus do not contain large amounts of phenylalanine. However, portion sizes and overall dietary balance should be monitored by a healthcare professional to ensure proper nutrition.
Choice C Reason:
Apple juice is also safe for individuals with PKU. It does not contain protein and therefore is not a significant source of phenylalanine. It can be included in the diet as part of the fluid intake.
Choice D Reason:
Broccoli is a low-protein vegetable and is typically allowed in the diets of individuals with PKU. It contains some phenylalanine, but in much lower amounts compared to high-protein foods. As with all foods, it should be consumed in moderation according to dietary guidelines provided by a healthcare professional.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Precipitous labor is characterized by a labor that progresses rapidly and ends within three hours of its onset. It is not typically associated with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This condition is more likely to present with intense, frequent contractions and a rapid change in cervical dilation. Therefore, precipitous labor is not the correct answer in this scenario.
Choice B reason:
Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterus before delivery. It can cause significant maternal and fetal complications. The classic presentation includes painful bleeding, uterine tenderness, and contractions. Given that the scenario describes painless bleeding, abruptio placentae is less likely to be the correct diagnosis.
Choice C reason:
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers the cervix partially or completely. The hallmark sign of placenta previa is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, which aligns with the scenario provided. This bleeding can occur spontaneously or be triggered by intercourse or a medical exam. Placenta previa is a serious condition that can lead to maternal and fetal hemorrhage and warrants immediate medical attention. Based on the information provided, placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis for the client described.
Choice D reason:
Threatened abortion refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, which may indicate a potential miscarriage. Since the client is at 36 weeks gestation, threatened abortion is not a relevant diagnosis for late-term bleeding. Additionally, threatened abortion is often accompanied by abdominal cramping, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
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