A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
Hydralazine
Nifedipine
Labetalol
Methyldopa
The Correct Answer is C
Labetalol is an antihypertensive drug that can lower blood pressure in pregnant women with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a condition that causes high blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine is not recommended as a first-line treatment for preeclampsia due to its potential adverse effects on maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B is wrong because nifedipine is not licensed for use in pregnancy and may interact with magnesium sulfate, which is an anticonvulsant medication used to prevent or treat seizures in severe preeclampsia.
Choice D is wrong because methyldopa is not effective for acute blood pressure control and may cause adverse effects such as depression, sedation, and hemolytic anemia.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Hydralazine can causetachycardia(fast heart rate) as a common side effect.
This is because hydralazine lowers blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels, which can make the heart beat faster to compensate.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not causehyperglycemia(high blood sugar).
Hydralazine is not known to affect glucose metabolism or insulin secretion.
Choice C is wrong because hydralazine does not causehypokalemia(low potassium levels).
Hydralazine is not a diuretic and does not increase potassium excretion.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not causeconstipation.Hydralazine can causediarrheaas a common side effect, but not constipation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Level of consciousness.
This is because magnesium sulfate, which is given to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, can cause respiratory depression and coma if the dose is too high.Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s level of consciousness and respiratory rate closely and report any signs of toxicity to the provider.
Choice A is wrong because hourly intake and output is not the most important assessment for this client.However, the nurse should monitor the urinary output as a sign of renal function and fluid balance and report any output less than 30 ml per hour.
Choice B is wrong because deep tendon reflexes are not the most important assessment for this client.However, the nurse should check the reflexes as a sign of neuromuscular irritability and report any hyperreflexia or clonus.
Choice C is wrong because lung sounds are not the most important assessment for this client.However, the nurse should auscultate the lungs as a sign of pulmonary edema and report any crackles or wheezes.
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