A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
Hydralazine
Nifedipine
Labetalol
Methyldopa
The Correct Answer is C
Labetalol is an antihypertensive drug that can lower blood pressure in pregnant women with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a condition that causes high blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine is not recommended as a first-line treatment for preeclampsia due to its potential adverse effects on maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B is wrong because nifedipine is not licensed for use in pregnancy and may interact with magnesium sulfate, which is an anticonvulsant medication used to prevent or treat seizures in severe preeclampsia.
Choice D is wrong because methyldopa is not effective for acute blood pressure control and may cause adverse effects such as depression, sedation, and hemolytic anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A and E. The nurse should check the client’s blood pressure and magnesium level before giving hydralazine to a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously.
• Choice A is correct because hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that lowers blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels.The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure before and after giving hydralazine to ensure that it is within the target range and to avoid hypotension or rebound hypertension.
• Choice B is wrong because pulse oximetry is not directly related to hydralazine administration or pre-eclampsia.Pulse oximetry measures the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the blood and can be affected by factors such as anemia, hypothermia, nail polish, or movement.
The nurse should monitor the client’s pulse oximetry as part of routine care, but it is not a priority before giving hydralazine.
• Choice C is wrong because checking the client’s reflexes is not directly related to hydralazine administration or pre-eclampsia.Reflexes are assessed to monitor for signs of magnesium toxicity, which can cause muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest.
The nurse should check the client’s reflexes as part of routine care, but it is not a priority before giving hydralazine.
• Choice D is wrong because checking the client’s urine specific gravity is not directly related to hydralazine administration or pre-eclampsia.Urine specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine and can be affected by factors such as hydration status, renal function, or diuretic use.
The nurse should monitor the client’s urine specific gravity as part of routine care, but it is not a priority before giving hydralazine.
• Choice E is correct because magnesium sulfate is a drug that prevents and treats seizures in women with severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia.The nurse should monitor the client’s magnesium level before and after giving magnesium sulfate to ensure that it is within the therapeutic range and to avoid magnesium toxicity.
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C and E.A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and indicates a risk of bleeding due to preeclampsia.A urine output of 20 mL/hour is also low and suggests kidney impairment due to magnesium sulfate therapy.
Both of these results should be reported to the provider as they may require intervention.
Choice A is wrong because a serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL is within the normal range of 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL for womenand does not indicate kidney dysfunction.
Choice B is wrong because liver enzymes of 40 U/L are within the normal range of 7 to 55 U/L for women and do not indicate liver damage.
Choice D is wrong because a coagulation profile of 12 seconds is within the normal range of 11 to 13.5 seconds for women and does not indicate a clotting disorder.
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