A nurse is instructed to administer 60 mEq of an iron supplement to an anemic client three times a day. The iron supplement botle contains 30 mEq in 10 mL.
How many milliliters of the supplement should the nurse administer in a day?
20 mL
60 mL
30 mL
10 mL
The Correct Answer is B
The nurse should administer 60 mL of the supplement in a day.
This answer is correct because it is based on a simple unit conversion and multiplication calculation. The nurse can convert 60 mEq to 20 mL by using the ratio given on the botle label, as follows:
30 mEq / 10 mL = 60 mEq / x mL
Cross-multiplying and solving for x gives:
x = 20 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 20 mL of the supplement to deliver 60 mEq of the medication to the patient. Since the order is for three times a day, the nurse should multiply 20 mL by 3 to get the total daily dose, which is 60 mL.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This action should be taken by the nurse before administering the medication because the use of a trailing zero after a decimal point (5.0 mg) is a common cause of medication errors and should be avoided. A trailing zero may be misread or misinterpreted as a larger dose (50 mg) or omited altogether, resulting in a 10-fold overdose or underdose, respectively. For example, when prescriptions have been writen for "Coumadin 1.0 mg," patients have received 10 mg in error. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the intended dose with the healthcare provider and use the correct notation (5 mg) without a trailing zero.
The other options are not appropriate actions because:
a) Discussing the use of PO (by mouth) with the healthcare provider is not necessary, as PO is a standard route of administration for Haldol (haloperidol) and does not pose a risk of confusion or error.
b) Discussing the use of tid (three times a day) with the healthcare provider is not necessary, as tid is a standard frequency of administration for Haldol and does not pose a risk of confusion or error.
c) Discussing the use of Haldol with the healthcare provider is not relevant to the question, as Haldol is the prescribed medication for the patient who is agitated and does not need to be changed or questioned by the nurse.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The infusion will be completed at 3:15 p.m.
This answer is correct because it is based on a simple division and addition calculation. The nurse should follow these steps to determine when the infusion will be completed:
1) Convert the volume of the fluid from liters to milliliters by multiplying by 1000, since there are 1000 mL in 1 L. The volume of the fluid is 750 mL.
2) Divide the volume of the fluid by the infusion rate to get the duration of the infusion in hours, as follows:
750 mL / 120 mL/hr = 6.25 hr
Therefore, the infusion will take 6.25 hours to complete.
3) Add the duration of the infusion to the start time of the infusion to get the end time, as follows:
9:00 a.m. + 6:25 = 3:15 p.m.
Therefore, the infusion will be completed at 3:15 p.m.
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