A nurse is helping to triage a group of clients at a mass casualty incident who were involved in an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse tag to be the priority for care?
A client who has severe head injuries, respiratory rate 6/min, and is unresponsive
A client who has a simple fracture of the femur, multiple scratches on both legs, and is crying hysterically
A female who is pregnant at 20 weeks of gestation, has multiple cuts and abrasions, and is walking around
A client who has a piece of wood punctured into the chest wall and has an audible hissing sound coming from the wound site
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because this client has signs of brain death, such as severe head injuries, low respiratory rate, and unresponsiveness. The nurse should tag this client as black, which means deceased or expectant.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because this client has non-life-threatening injuries, such as a simple fracture and scratches. The nurse should tag this client as green, which means minor or delayed care.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because this client has minor injuries and is able to walk around. The nurse should tag this client as green, which means minor or delayed care.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because this client has a life-threatening condition called tension pneumothorax, which requires immediate care. This client has a life-threatening condition called tension pneumothorax, which is caused by air leaking into the pleural space and compressing the lung and the heart. This can lead to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, and death if not treated immediately. The hissing sound indicates that air is escaping from the lung through the wound. The nurse should tag this client as red, which means immediate care is needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a) is incorrect because morphine sulfate is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that can relieve pain, anxiety, and dyspnea. Morphine sulfate can also reduce the preload and afterload of the heart, which can improve the cardiac output and oxygenation.
Choice b) is incorrect because laboratory testing of serum potassium is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Serum potassium is an electrolyte that is important for the normal function of the cardiac cells and muscles. Serum potassium can be altered by various factors, such as renal function, acid-base balance, medications, or dietary intake. Serum potassium can affect the cardiac rhythm and contractility, which can influence the outcome of the client.
Choice c) is correct because 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous is a prescription that requires clarification for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. 0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution that can maintain the fluid balance and blood pressure in the body. However, 0.9% normal saline can also cause fluid overload and worsen the heart failure symptoms, such as edema, crackles, and dyspnea. The nurse should clarify with the provider if this prescription is appropriate for the client's condition and if there are any parameters or limits for the fluid administration.
Choice d) is incorrect because bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that can increase the urine output and reduce the fluid volume and pressure in the body. Bumetanide can also decrease the preload and afterload of the heart, which can improve the cardiac output and oxygenation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Ask the client to shrug his shoulders against passive resistance is not an assessment that will give the nurse information about the function of cranial nerve III. This assessment will test the function of cranial nerve XI, which is the accessory nerve. The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, which are involved in shoulder and neck movements.
Choice B: Instruct the client to look up and down without moving his head is an assessment that will give the nurse information about the function of cranial nerve III. Cranial nerve III is the oculomotor nerve, which innervates four of the six extraocular muscles that control eye movements. The oculomotor nerve also controls pupil size and lens shape. By instructing the client to look up and down without moving his head, the nurse can assess the ability of the oculomotor nerve to move the eyes vertically and adjust to different distances.
Choice C: Observe the client's ability to smile and frown is not an assessment that will give the nurse information about the function of cranial nerve III. This assessment will test the function of cranial nerve VII, which is the facial nerve. The facial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression, which are involved in smiling, frowning, blinking, and other facial movements.
Choice D: Have the client stand with his eyes closed and touch his nose is not an assessment that will give the nurse information about the function of cranial nerve III. This assessment will test the function of cranial nerve VIII, which is the vestibulocochlear nerve. The vestibulocochlear nerve innervates the inner ear and is responsible for hearing and balance. By having the client stand with his eyes closed and touch his nose, the nurse can assess the ability of the vestibulocochlear nerve to maintain equilibrium and coordination.
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